GATE-2017: Life Sciences 12th Feb 2017 Question Paper

Chemistry (XL-P)

CO reacts readily with

Molecules that are NOT isoelectronic to  ion are

The extensive quantity among the following is

The compound that gives characteristic foul smell upon heating with potassium hydroxide and chloroform is

The correct order of stability in water is

The pair o f molecules having non-linear structures is

The decreasing order of bond lengths for O₂, B₂, N₂ and C₂ is

The octahedral metal oxide with the highest CFSE value is

Assuming independent non-interacting electrons, the first ionization energy of Helium atom is

For a reaction A + B → products, the following data was obtained.

A₀ and B₀ are initial concentrations of A and B, respectively. The overall order of the reaction is

The EMF for the following cell at 298.15 K is

Ag(s) | Ag⁺ (aq., 0.01 M)|| Ag⁺(aq., 1.0 M)|Ag(s)

(Standard reduction potential for Ag⁺ + e⁻ → Ag is −0.80 V)

One gram of a protein is dissolved in one liter of water. The resulting solution exerts an osmotic pressure of 1.4 Torr at 298 K. Assuming that the protein does not ionize in solution, the molecular weight of the protein is ______ g mol⁻¹. (R = 0.082 L atm mol⁻¹ K⁻¹)

The type of nucelophilic substitution and the possible products for each of the reactions P and Q are

If mono-chlorination occurs at every carbon in the following reaction, the number of isomers (stereo isomers + constitutional isomers) that one can have is

The major product in the following reaction is

Biochemistry (XL-Q)

The molecular weights of a protein as determined by native PAGE is 400 kDa. This protein when run on a non-reducing SDS-PAGE gave band of 200 kDa and on a reducing SDS-PAGE, gave a band of 100 kDa. The protein is

Which one of the following techniques CANNOT be used to determine the sequence of a novel protein?

Which type of polyacrylamide gel can be used for analyzing the four different proteins listed below?

Protein P: 60 kDa, pI 4

Protein Q: 45 kDa, pI 8

Protein R: 60 kDa, pI 6

Protein S: 45 kDa, pI 7.5

The number of fragments generated when the peptide ‘ANDCQEGKFMLKPDTWRYVSFMRPA’ is subjected to complete digestion with trypsin are ….

Puromycin is a structural analog of

Which one of the enzymes is responsible for arsenic toxicity?

Which one is TRUE for Calvin cycle?

Administration of primaquine causes severe hemolytic anemia because it

Which one of the following will NOT from lipid bilayer?

Which one of the following features is NOT appropriate for Fab fragment of IgG?

The duration of DNA synthesis (S phase) in plant cells is 11 h and the DNA is replicated at rate of 100 bp/s fork. A plant species has about 3.0 × 10¹⁰ bp DNA/genome. The number of bidirectional forks per genome required for replication will be …………..

In a PCR reaction, with one double stranded DNA of 600 bp, nano gram of DNA produced after 40 cycles of amplification will be ………

A solution containing GTP has molar extinction coefficient of 1.55 × 10⁴ mol⁻¹ dm³ cm⁻¹ at a given wavelength. The concentration of GTP solution is 1.290 × 10⁻⁵ mol dm⁻³. The absorbance of GTP solution in 1 cm cuvette at the same wavelength will be ….

Which one of the following is NOT TRUE for class I MHC protein?

In an enzyme catalyzed reaction, the initial reaction velocity is only one fourth of its maximum velocity. If the substrate concentration is 3.0 × 10⁻³ mM, the value of K_m in micro molar (μM) will be ….

Match the following enzymes in column I with their cofactors in column II

Column I

(P) Pyruvate decarboxylase

(Q) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase

(R) Pyruvate carboxylase

(S) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

Column II

Biocytin

ii, NADP⁺

iii. NAD⁺

iv. Thiamine pyrophosphate

Match the molecule in column I with its function in column II

Column I

(P) Cholera toxin

(Q) Pertussis toxin

(R) IP3

(S) Caffeine

Column II

(i) modifies G_αi

(ii) inhibits c-AMP phosphodiesterase

(iii) modifies G_αS

(iv) increases interacellular Ca²⁺ level

In an in vitro dehydrogenatin reaction of succinate catalyzed by succinate dehydrogenase, malonate is added. Which one of the following curves represents the effect of malonate on the catalysis of succinate dehydrogenase?

Cardiotonic steroids have ability to strengthen heart muscle contraction due to the fact that these steroids

A newly isolated circular plasmid gave two bands of 3.2 and 3 kb on digestion with EcoRI and two bands of 5.0 kb and 1.2 kb on digestion with BamHI. Double digestion with EcoRI and BamHI, yielded four bands of 2.6 kb, 2.4 kb, 0.8 kb and 0.4 kb. Digestion with SalI led to disruption of ampicillin resistance gene cassette. The correct restriction map is

Botany (XL-R)

As per the Angiosperm Phylogeny Group (APG II, 2003) classification, which of the following plant families comprises of only single genus with single species?

A cavity, lysigenous in origin and possessing volatile oil is found in the pericarp of one of the following plants. Identify the CORRECT answer.

Among the following, which genetic material is naturally inherited through maternal inheritance in higher plants?

A typical floral meristem differs from shoot apical meristem on the basis of

Which of the following plant hormones is a carotenoid-cleavage product?

Two of the vir operons of Ti plasmid in Agrobacterium tumefaciens are constitutively expressed. Identify the CORRECT pair.

Which of the following fungi is an example of obligate biotrophic plant pathogen?

The phenomenon where an organism lives at the expense of another organism by harming it but not killing, is called

Which of the following is TRUE for K-strategist species?

Identify the INCORRECT statement with relation to plant secondary metabolites.

Choose the CORRECT set of matches between group I and group II in relation to nitrogen fixation and assimilation

Group I                           Group II

(P) Nitrobacter                  1. NO₃⁻ → NO₂⁻

(Q) Nitrite reductase         2. N₂ → 2NH₃

(R) Nitrogenase                3. NO₂⁻ → NH₄⁺

(S) Nitrate reductase        4. NO₂⁻ → NO₃⁻

Two plant cells M and N are lying side by side making direct contact. “M” has osmotic potential (Ψs) of -10 bar and pressure potential (Ψp) of 4 bar. On the other hand, “N” has osmotic potential (Ψs) of -12 bar and pressure potential (Ψp) of 5 bar.

Based on these data, what would be the direction of movement of water between M and N?

Two independent non-segregating recessive mutants (m1 and m2) display similar defects in petal formation. When they were crossed with each other (m1 x m2), all the F1 plants developed normal petals. In view of this observation, which of the following conclusions is CORRECT?

In a hypothetical trihybrid cross of three loci (viz. A, B, C), all were inherited in a complete dominant manner over their recessive alleles a, b, c, respectively. When a test cross between F1 and parent ‘aabbcc’ was performed, following genotypes of eight phenotypically distinct classes were observed with respective numbers

The genetic distance (up to one decimal) between A and C loci will be _____cM.

In a typical sexually reproducing angiospermic plant, if an endosperm cell contains 4.8 × 10⁸ nucleotide pairs of DNA, then microsporocyte of this plants will have ________× 10⁸ nucleotide pairs of DNA.

Identify the CORRECT matching between group I and group II in relation to ecology

Group I

(P) The physical environment of an organism

(Q) The totality of the needs of a population for survival and its resource utilization

(R) The position of a species in a food chain

(S) Basic functional unit comprising living community and its physical environment

Group II

1. Trophic level

2. Habitat

3. Ecosystem

4. Niche

5. Ecological pyramid

Choose the CORRECT set of matches between group I and group II in relation to plant genetic transformation methods.

Group I                              Group II

(P) Helium                        1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(Q) Acetosyringone          2. Microinjection

(R) Polyethylene glycol    3. Particle bombardment

(S) Agarose embedding  4. Protoplast

Match the pathogen, disease caused and the affected plant in the CORRECT combination.

Pathogen

(P) Blumeria graminis

(Q) Magnaparthe grisea

(R) Venturia inaequalis

(S) Cercospora personata

Disease

i. Blast disease

ii. Powdery mildew

iii. Tikka disease

iv. Scab disease

Plant

1. Groundnut

2. Apple

3. Barley

4. Rice

Choose the plant part, its use and the source species in CORRECT combination.

Plant Part

P. Bark

Q. Leaf

R. Capsule

S. Stigma

Use

i. Insecticide

ii. Food colorant

iii. Flavoring agent

iv. Analgesic

Species

1. Crocus sativus

2. Papaver somniferum

3. Azadirachta indica

4. Cinnamomum zeylanicum

Which two of the following reactions are INCORRECT in relation to C₂ oxidative photosynthetic carbon cycle in land plants?

P. 2(Ribulose-1, 5-biphosphate) + 2(CO₂) → 2(phosphoglycolate) + 2(3-phosphoglycerate) + 4H⁺

Q. Serine + α-ketoglutarate → hydroxypyruvate + glutamine

R. 2(Phosphoglycolate) + 2(H₂O) → 2(glycolate) + 2Pi

S. Hydroxypyruvate + NADH + H⁺ → glycerate + NAD⁺

Microbiology (XL-S)

Which one of the following is the end product of dissimilatory sulfate reduction by sulfate reducing bacteria?

Which one of the following is the terminal electron acceptor in the given metabolic reaction catalyzed by methanogens?

4H₂ + CO₂ → CH₄ + 2H₂O

Microbes that have their optimal growth rate near 15℃ but can still grow at 0℃ to 20℃ are known as

Which one of the following is NOT a contribution by Robert Koch?

Unicellular eukaryotic organisms belong to which one of the following kingdoms of classification?

Which one of the following is a contagious disease?

The inner mitochondrial membrane comprises of a series of folds known as

Which one of the following antibiotics is NOT produced by Streptomyces sp.?

Which one of the following statements is TRUE about MacConkey (MAC) agar medium?

As an antiseptic, alcohol is effective against

An antigen X was injected into a rabbit for the first time at time P. Then the rabbit was given a booster dose of X at time Q. Which one of the following figures accurately depicts the adaptive immune response by the rabbit against X?

A bactericidal agent X is added after 3 hours of growth of a bacterial culture. Following the addition of X, the bacterial growth was measured using the standard plate count method till 24 hours. Which one of the following figures is the most accurate representation of the action of X?

Match the diseases given in Group I with their causative agents from Group II.

Group I                           Group II

(P) Plague               (I) Coxiella burnetii

(Q) Rabies              (II) Plasmodium spp.

(R) Q fever              (III) Yersinia pestis

(S) Malaria              (IV) Lyssavirus

Match the enzymes given in Group I with the events from Group II.

Group I

(P) UvrABC endonulcease

(Q) Reverse transcriptase

(R) AP endonuclease

(S) ATP sulfurylase

Group II

(I) Retrovirus replication

(II) Base excision repair

(III) Nucleotide excision repair

(IV) Pyrosequencing

Match the terms given in Group I with the descriptions from Group II.

Group I

(P) Photoautotrophs

(Q)Chemoautotrophs

(R) Photoheterotrophs

(S) Chemoheterotrophs

Group II

(I) Use inorganic chemical reactions for energy production

(II) Use organic compounds for energy production

(III) Use sunlight as energy source and carbon dioxide as carbon source

(IV) Use sunlight as energy source and organic compounds as carbon source

One-ml sample of a bacterial culture was serially diluted to 10⁵ times, and 46 colonies were obtained after plating this diluted sample on an agar medium. The number of cells present per ml in the undiluted original sample were_______

The transformation efficiency of competent cells prepared in a laboratory is 10⁴ CFU/μg of plasmid DNA. If 0.01 μg of this plasmid is  used to transform these competent cells, the number of transformed bacteria in CFU after plating will be ________

Assume that the average DNA content of a single microbial cell is 4 femtogram. A soil sample analyzed for its microbial community DNA is found to contain 0.32μg DNA per gram of the soil. The number of microbial cells per milligram of the soil are _______

Assume that a bacterial culture has mean generation time of 2 hours. If the number of bacteria present after 24 hours of culture are 4.1 × 10⁷, the initial number of bacteria present were ________

The minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) of an antibiotic X against Clostribdium tetani, Staphylococcus sp., Shigella sp., and Streptococcus sp. is 25, 15, 2 and 1 μg/ml, respectively. Assuming that the bioavailable concentration of X in an animal model is 20 μg/ml, which one of these bacteria may develop resistance against X in the animal model?

Zoology (XL-T)

The characteristic feature of deuterostomes is depicted by

One of the most remarkable features of evolution is the formation of amnion and allantoin. This appeared for the “first time” in evolutionary time scale in

A woman with blood group A gave birth to a baby with blood group AB. The blood group of the father would be

The enzyme amylase can break alpha glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers. Hence amylase can digest which one of the following carbohydrates?

The metabolic pathway which is common to both fermentation and cellular respiration is

A female “Spotted sand piper” courts males repeatedly. This behavior can be explained by the term

Malaria is caused by Plasmodium species, which is a parasite having a complex life cycle. The fusion between male and female gametocytes of Plasmodium happens inside

Aromatase inhibitors are often prescribed for post-menopausal women to treat estrogen receptor positive breast cancer patients, because these class of drugs

The covalent modification performed by kinases which regulate proteins in signaling pathways is

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

A particular species is found to have 2n = 16 chromosomes. The n umber of linkage groups in this species will be ______

In the Meselson and Stahl experiment. E. coli was grown in a medium containing ¹⁵NH₄Cl. After 24 hours. E. coli were transferred to medium containing ¹⁴NH₄Cl. After the fourth generation in medium containing ¹⁴NH₄Cl, the ratio between hybrids (¹⁵N/¹⁴N) and light (¹⁴/¹⁴N)labeled DNA will be 1 : n, where the value of n is ______

The population data present in an island is as follows

Genotype               Number

AA                          300

Aa                           500

aa                            200

Total                       1000

The allele frequency of A(upto two decimals) will be ______

A cell in G1 phase has 16 chromosomes. The total number of chromatids that would be found per cell during Metaphase II of meiosis are _____

Upon activation of phospholipase C by ligand binding to G-protein coupled receptor, the Ca⁺² concentration in cytosol will

Match the following molecules in Group I with their function in Group II

Group I                           Group II

P. Transferrin                 (i) Uptake of glucose

Q. Insulin                       (ii) Binds iron

R. α-macroglobulin        (iii) Substratum for cell attachment

S. Fibronectin                 (iv) Proteinase inhibitor

                                       (v) Binds to oxygen in RBC

If a heavy chain of an antibody molecule weighs 65,000 Daltons (Da) and a light chain weighs 25,000 Da, the approximate calculated weight of an IgM antibody in Da will be

MATCH the signaling pathways in Group I with their functions in Group II, during the process of development

Group I

Hedgehog signaling

Hox proteins

Wnt signaling

Notch signaling

Group II

(i) Involved in signaling at 4-cell embryo stage in C. elegans through glp 1 expression

(ii) Involves frizzled receptor on target cell membrane and establish polarity in insects

(iii) Plays critical role in facial morphogenesis in vertebrates and its mutation causes cyclopia

(iv) Required for T-bx transcription factor expression for vertebrate limb development

In a population which is Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium the frequency of the recessive genotype of a certain trait is 0.09. The percentage of individuals with heterozygous genotype is ______%

An enzyme preparation has activity of 2 Units per 20 μl, and protein concentration 0.4 mg/ml. The specific activity (Units/mg) of this enzyme will be_____

Food Technology (XL-U)

Indicate the correct group that contains a monosaccharide, a disaccharide and a trisaccharide.

In which of the following products, ‘must’ is used as the substrate for fermentation?

Identify the foodborne illness which is not caused by bacteria.

Nutrient composition of wheat flour changes with extent of extraction from whole wheat grain. Which of the following statements is true if the extraction rate increased from 50% to 90%?

You have two samples of milk, one (X) with 3.8% fat and another (Y) with 0.5% fat. In order to produce a milk with 3.5% fat, 100 ml of Y should be mixed with ______ml of X.

Match the items in column I with the items in column II in relation to food safety and standards.

Column I               Column II

P. HACCP           1. International food standards

Q. FSSAI            2. Quality control protocol

R. CIP                 3. Food plant sanitation and hygiene protocol

S. CODEX           4. Indian food standards

A 50% sucrose solution at 20℃ is flowing at a rate of 3.5 m³/h through a pipe with an inside diameter of 0.0475 m and length of 12 m. The viscosity and the density of the solution are 15.43 cp and 1232 kg/m³, respectively. The Reynolds number of the flow is ______.

In a pineapple juice, fibre particles having mean diameter of 160 μm and density of 1075 kg/m³ are settling by gravity. If the density and viscosity of the juice are 1015 kg/m³ and 0.98 cp, respectively, terminal velocity of the fibre particles is _____mm/s.

Power consumption in liquid mixing is proportional to ______.

A dye-reduction test for estimation of viable microorganisms, the most commonly used dyes are methylene blue, triphenyltetrazolium-chloride and _________

Match the following items of group I with the items of group II in relatin to the quality of fat.

Group I

P. Saponification number

Q. Iodine number

R. Reichert Meissl number

S. Acetyl value

Group II

1. Unsaturation of fatty acid

2. Volatile water soluble fatty acid

3. Hydroxy fatty acid

4. Molecular weight of fatty acid

Match the following metabolic product (Column I) that indicates the quality of food (Column II)

Column I                         Column II

P. Ethanol                    1. Canned vegetable

Q. Lactic acid               2. Fish

R. Trimehylamine         3. Butter

S. Volatile fatty acid      4. Apple juice

Correlate the vitamins in column I with their role in promoting reaction/process in column II.

Column I                         Column II

P. Riboflavin                   1. Visual cycle

Q. Vitamin D                   2. Acyl group transfer

R. Pantothenic acid         3. Regulation of Ca²⁺ metabolism

S. Vitamin A                     4. Oxidation-reduction reaction

A pure strain with generation time of 60 min is used in a fermentation process. Following inoculation (0 h), the stain takes 2 h for adaptation, 10 h to achieve maximum growth and 12 h to arrive at the point where the death rate is higher than the growth rate. If the inoculation load is 100 cells, the total populatin at the end of 10 h will be ______.

Refer to the shear stress – shear rate plot shown in the figure below. Match the lines (Column I) with appropriate rheological behavior (Column II)

Column I               Column II

P. Line 1                1. Dilatant

Q. Line 2               2. Newtonian

R. Line 3               3. Pseudoplastic

S. Line 4                4. Bingham plastic

Water flowing at a rate of 1 kg/mi is heated from 12 to 80℃ with flue gas supplied at a rate of 3 kg/min. The temperature and specific heat of the flue gas are 180℃ and 1.05 kJ/kg.K, respectively. If specific heat of water is 4.2 kJ/kg.K and the flow is parallel, then the logarithmic mean temperature difference will be _______℃.

The Lineweaver-Burk plot of an enzymatic reaction shows V_max of 160 μmol/l.min and k_m of 60 μmol/l. For a substrate concentration of 40 μmol/l the velocity of the reaction is estimated to be ______μmol/l.min.

A suspension containing 2 × 10⁴ spores of organism A having a D_121.1℃ value of 1.5 min and 8 × 10⁵ spores of organism B having a D_121.1℃ value of 0.8 min is heated at a constant temperature of 121.1℃. The heating time needed to obtain a probability of spoilage ‘1 in 1000’ is _____min.

In a evaporation process, a compressor picks up 0.05 m³ air in each revolution and compresses 500 kg of air per minute. If the specific volume of air is 0.9 m³/kg, then the compressor speed is _____rpm.

For a soybean oil extraction system, solvent: soy ratio is maintained at 0.5:1 (w/w). Original seed contains 18% oil (w/w). If the meal (soy solid) after final desolventization has 0.01 kg oil per kg oil free meal, then the effectiveness of the solvent (kg oil/kg solvent) in the extraction process is ______

General Aptitude

The event would have been successful if you ______ able to come.

There was no doubt that their work was thorough.

Which of the words below is closest in meaning to the underlined word above?

Four cards lie on a table. Each card has a number printed on one side and a colour on the other. The faces visible on the cards are 2, 3, red, and blue.

Proposition: If a card has an even value on one side, then its opposite face is red.

The cards which MUST be turned over to verify the above proposition are

What is the value of x when 

Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability that the product of the numbers appearing on the top faces of the dice is a perfect square is

Bhaichung was observing the pattern of people entering and leaving a car service centre. There was a single window where customers were being served. He saw that people inevitably came out of the centre in the order that they went in. However, the time they spent inside seemed to vary a lot: some people came out in a matter of minutes while for others it took much longer.

From this, what can one conclude?

A map shows the elevations of Darjeeling, Gangtok, Kalimpong, pelling, and Siliguri, Kalimpong is at a lower elevation than Gangtok. Pelling is at a lower elevation than Gangtok. Pelling is at a higher elevation that siliguri. Darjeeling is at a higher elevation than Gangtok.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the paragraph above?

i. Pelling is at a higher elevation than Kalimpong

ii. Kalimpong is at a lower elevation than Darjeeling

iii. Kalimpong is at a higher elevation than siliguri

iv. Siliguri is at a lower elevation than Gangtok

P,Q,R,S,T and U are seated around a circular table. R is seated two places to the right of Q.P is seated three places to the left of R. S is seated opposite U. If P and U now switch seats.

Which of the following must necessarily be true?

Budhan covers a distance of f19 km in 2 hours by cycling one fourth of the time and walking the rest. The next day he cycles (at the same speed as before) for half the time and walks the rest (at the same speed as before) and covers 26 km in 2 hours. The speed in km/h at which Budhan walks is

The points in the graph below represent the halts of a lift for duration of 1 minute, over a period of 1 hour.

Which of the following statements are correct?

i. The elevator never moves directly from any non-ground floor to another non-ground floor over the one hour period

ii. The elevator stays on the fourth floor for the longest duration over the one hour period