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- Answered
- Review
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Question 1 of 125
1. Question
Chemistry (XL-P)
CO reacts readily with
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Question 2 of 125
2. Question
Molecules that are NOT isoelectronic to
ion are
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Question 3 of 125
3. Question
The extensive quantity among the following is
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Question 4 of 125
4. Question
The compound that gives characteristic foul smell upon heating with potassium hydroxide and chloroform is
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Question 5 of 125
5. Question
The correct order of stability in water is
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Question 6 of 125
6. Question
The pair o f molecules having non-linear structures is
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Question 7 of 125
7. Question
The decreasing order of bond lengths for O2, B2, N2 and C2 is
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Question 8 of 125
8. Question
The octahedral metal oxide with the highest CFSE value is
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Question 9 of 125
9. Question
Assuming independent non-interacting electrons, the first ionization energy of Helium atom is
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Question 10 of 125
10. Question
For a reaction A + B → products, the following data was obtained.
A0 and B0 are initial concentrations of A and B, respectively. The overall order of the reaction is
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 11 of 125
11. Question
The EMF for the following cell at 298.15 K is
Ag(s) | Ag+ (aq., 0.01 M)|| Ag+(aq., 1.0 M)|Ag(s)
(Standard reduction potential for Ag+ + e− → Ag is −0.80 V)
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Question 12 of 125
12. Question
One gram of a protein is dissolved in one liter of water. The resulting solution exerts an osmotic pressure of 1.4 Torr at 298 K. Assuming that the protein does not ionize in solution, the molecular weight of the protein is ______ g mol−1. (R = 0.082 L atm mol−1 K−1)
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question
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Question 13 of 125
13. Question
The type of nucelophilic substitution and the possible products for each of the reactions P and Q are
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Question 14 of 125
14. Question
If mono-chlorination occurs at every carbon in the following reaction, the number of isomers (stereo isomers + constitutional isomers) that one can have is
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Question 15 of 125
15. Question
The major product in the following reaction is
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Question 16 of 125
16. Question
Biochemistry (XL-Q)
The molecular weights of a protein as determined by native PAGE is 400 kDa. This protein when run on a non-reducing SDS-PAGE gave band of 200 kDa and on a reducing SDS-PAGE, gave a band of 100 kDa. The protein is
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Question 17 of 125
17. Question
Which one of the following techniques CANNOT be used to determine the sequence of a novel protein?
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Question 18 of 125
18. Question
Which type of polyacrylamide gel can be used for analyzing the four different proteins listed below?
Protein P: 60 kDa, pI 4
Protein Q: 45 kDa, pI 8
Protein R: 60 kDa, pI 6
Protein S: 45 kDa, pI 7.5
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Question 19 of 125
19. Question
The number of fragments generated when the peptide ‘ANDCQEGKFMLKPDTWRYVSFMRPA’ is subjected to complete digestion with trypsin are ….
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NAT Type Question
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Question 20 of 125
20. Question
Puromycin is a structural analog of
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Question 21 of 125
21. Question
Which one of the enzymes is responsible for arsenic toxicity?
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Question 22 of 125
22. Question
Which one is TRUE for Calvin cycle?
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Question 23 of 125
23. Question
Administration of primaquine causes severe hemolytic anemia because it
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Question 24 of 125
24. Question
Which one of the following will NOT from lipid bilayer?
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Question 25 of 125
25. Question
Which one of the following features is NOT appropriate for Fab fragment of IgG?
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Question 26 of 125
26. Question
The duration of DNA synthesis (S phase) in plant cells is 11 h and the DNA is replicated at rate of 100 bp/s fork. A plant species has about 3.0 × 1010 bp DNA/genome. The number of bidirectional forks per genome required for replication will be …………..
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question
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Question 27 of 125
27. Question
In a PCR reaction, with one double stranded DNA of 600 bp, nano gram of DNA produced after 40 cycles of amplification will be ………
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question
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Question 28 of 125
28. Question
A solution containing GTP has molar extinction coefficient of 1.55 × 104 mol−1 dm3 cm−1 at a given wavelength. The concentration of GTP solution is 1.290 × 10−5 mol dm−3. The absorbance of GTP solution in 1 cm cuvette at the same wavelength will be ….
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question
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Question 29 of 125
29. Question
Which one of the following is NOT TRUE for class I MHC protein?
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Question 30 of 125
30. Question
In an enzyme catalyzed reaction, the initial reaction velocity is only one fourth of its maximum velocity. If the substrate concentration is 3.0 × 10−3 mM, the value of Km in micro molar (μM) will be ….
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question
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Question 31 of 125
31. Question
Match the following enzymes in column I with their cofactors in column II
Column I
(P) Pyruvate decarboxylase
(Q) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase
(R) Pyruvate carboxylase
(S) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
Column II
Biocytin
ii, NADP+
iii. NAD+
iv. Thiamine pyrophosphate
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Question 32 of 125
32. Question
Match the molecule in column I with its function in column II
Column I
(P) Cholera toxin
(Q) Pertussis toxin
(R) IP3
(S) Caffeine
Column II
(i) modifies Gαi
(ii) inhibits c-AMP phosphodiesterase
(iii) modifies GαS
(iv) increases interacellular Ca2+ level
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Question 33 of 125
33. Question
In an in vitro dehydrogenatin reaction of succinate catalyzed by succinate dehydrogenase, malonate is added. Which one of the following curves represents the effect of malonate on the catalysis of succinate dehydrogenase?
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Question 34 of 125
34. Question
Cardiotonic steroids have ability to strengthen heart muscle contraction due to the fact that these steroids
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Question 35 of 125
35. Question
A newly isolated circular plasmid gave two bands of 3.2 and 3 kb on digestion with EcoRI and two bands of 5.0 kb and 1.2 kb on digestion with BamHI. Double digestion with EcoRI and BamHI, yielded four bands of 2.6 kb, 2.4 kb, 0.8 kb and 0.4 kb. Digestion with SalI led to disruption of ampicillin resistance gene cassette. The correct restriction map is
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Question 36 of 125
36. Question
Botany (XL-R)
As per the Angiosperm Phylogeny Group (APG II, 2003) classification, which of the following plant families comprises of only single genus with single species?
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Question 37 of 125
37. Question
A cavity, lysigenous in origin and possessing volatile oil is found in the pericarp of one of the following plants. Identify the CORRECT answer.
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Question 38 of 125
38. Question
Among the following, which genetic material is naturally inherited through maternal inheritance in higher plants?
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Question 39 of 125
39. Question
A typical floral meristem differs from shoot apical meristem on the basis of
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Question 40 of 125
40. Question
Which of the following plant hormones is a carotenoid-cleavage product?
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Question 41 of 125
41. Question
Two of the vir operons of Ti plasmid in Agrobacterium tumefaciens are constitutively expressed. Identify the CORRECT pair.
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Question 42 of 125
42. Question
Which of the following fungi is an example of obligate biotrophic plant pathogen?
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Question 43 of 125
43. Question
The phenomenon where an organism lives at the expense of another organism by harming it but not killing, is called
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Question 44 of 125
44. Question
Which of the following is TRUE for K-strategist species?
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Question 45 of 125
45. Question
Identify the INCORRECT statement with relation to plant secondary metabolites.
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Question 46 of 125
46. Question
Choose the CORRECT set of matches between group I and group II in relation to nitrogen fixation and assimilation
Group I Group II
(P) Nitrobacter 1. NO3− → NO2−
(Q) Nitrite reductase 2. N2 → 2NH3
(R) Nitrogenase 3. NO2− → NH4+
(S) Nitrate reductase 4. NO2− → NO3−
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Question 47 of 125
47. Question
Two plant cells M and N are lying side by side making direct contact. “M” has osmotic potential (Ψs) of -10 bar and pressure potential (Ψp) of 4 bar. On the other hand, “N” has osmotic potential (Ψs) of -12 bar and pressure potential (Ψp) of 5 bar.
Based on these data, what would be the direction of movement of water between M and N?
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Question 48 of 125
48. Question
Two independent non-segregating recessive mutants (m1 and m2) display similar defects in petal formation. When they were crossed with each other (m1 x m2), all the F1 plants developed normal petals. In view of this observation, which of the following conclusions is CORRECT?
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Question 49 of 125
49. Question
In a hypothetical trihybrid cross of three loci (viz. A, B, C), all were inherited in a complete dominant manner over their recessive alleles a, b, c, respectively. When a test cross between F1 and parent ‘aabbcc’ was performed, following genotypes of eight phenotypically distinct classes were observed with respective numbers
The genetic distance (up to one decimal) between A and C loci will be _____cM.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question
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Question 50 of 125
50. Question
In a typical sexually reproducing angiospermic plant, if an endosperm cell contains 4.8 × 108 nucleotide pairs of DNA, then microsporocyte of this plants will have ________× 108 nucleotide pairs of DNA.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question
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Question 51 of 125
51. Question
Identify the CORRECT matching between group I and group II in relation to ecology
Group I
(P) The physical environment of an organism
(Q) The totality of the needs of a population for survival and its resource utilization
(R) The position of a species in a food chain
(S) Basic functional unit comprising living community and its physical environment
Group II
1. Trophic level
2. Habitat
3. Ecosystem
4. Niche
5. Ecological pyramid
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Question 52 of 125
52. Question
Choose the CORRECT set of matches between group I and group II in relation to plant genetic transformation methods.
Group I Group II
(P) Helium 1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(Q) Acetosyringone 2. Microinjection
(R) Polyethylene glycol 3. Particle bombardment
(S) Agarose embedding 4. Protoplast
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Question 53 of 125
53. Question
Match the pathogen, disease caused and the affected plant in the CORRECT combination.
Pathogen
(P) Blumeria graminis
(Q) Magnaparthe grisea
(R) Venturia inaequalis
(S) Cercospora personata
Disease
i. Blast disease
ii. Powdery mildew
iii. Tikka disease
iv. Scab disease
Plant
1. Groundnut
2. Apple
3. Barley
4. Rice
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Question 54 of 125
54. Question
Choose the plant part, its use and the source species in CORRECT combination.
Plant Part
P. Bark
Q. Leaf
R. Capsule
S. Stigma
Use
i. Insecticide
ii. Food colorant
iii. Flavoring agent
iv. Analgesic
Species
1. Crocus sativus
2. Papaver somniferum
3. Azadirachta indica
4. Cinnamomum zeylanicum
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Question 55 of 125
55. Question
Which two of the following reactions are INCORRECT in relation to C2 oxidative photosynthetic carbon cycle in land plants?
P. 2(Ribulose-1, 5-biphosphate) + 2(CO2) → 2(phosphoglycolate) + 2(3-phosphoglycerate) + 4H+
Q. Serine + α-ketoglutarate → hydroxypyruvate + glutamine
R. 2(Phosphoglycolate) + 2(H2O) → 2(glycolate) + 2Pi
S. Hydroxypyruvate + NADH + H+ → glycerate + NAD+
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Question 56 of 125
56. Question
Microbiology (XL-S)
Which one of the following is the end product of dissimilatory sulfate reduction by sulfate reducing bacteria?
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Question 57 of 125
57. Question
Which one of the following is the terminal electron acceptor in the given metabolic reaction catalyzed by methanogens?
4H2 + CO2 → CH4 + 2H2O
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Question 58 of 125
58. Question
Microbes that have their optimal growth rate near 15℃ but can still grow at 0℃ to 20℃ are known as
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Question 59 of 125
59. Question
Which one of the following is NOT a contribution by Robert Koch?
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Question 60 of 125
60. Question
Unicellular eukaryotic organisms belong to which one of the following kingdoms of classification?
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Question 61 of 125
61. Question
Which one of the following is a contagious disease?
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Question 62 of 125
62. Question
The inner mitochondrial membrane comprises of a series of folds known as
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Question 63 of 125
63. Question
Which one of the following antibiotics is NOT produced by Streptomyces sp.?
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Question 64 of 125
64. Question
Which one of the following statements is TRUE about MacConkey (MAC) agar medium?
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Question 65 of 125
65. Question
As an antiseptic, alcohol is effective against
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Question 66 of 125
66. Question
An antigen X was injected into a rabbit for the first time at time P. Then the rabbit was given a booster dose of X at time Q. Which one of the following figures accurately depicts the adaptive immune response by the rabbit against X?
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Question 67 of 125
67. Question
A bactericidal agent X is added after 3 hours of growth of a bacterial culture. Following the addition of X, the bacterial growth was measured using the standard plate count method till 24 hours. Which one of the following figures is the most accurate representation of the action of X?
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Question 68 of 125
68. Question
Match the diseases given in Group I with their causative agents from Group II.
Group I Group II
(P) Plague (I) Coxiella burnetii
(Q) Rabies (II) Plasmodium spp.
(R) Q fever (III) Yersinia pestis
(S) Malaria (IV) Lyssavirus
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Question 69 of 125
69. Question
Match the enzymes given in Group I with the events from Group II.
Group I
(P) UvrABC endonulcease
(Q) Reverse transcriptase
(R) AP endonuclease
(S) ATP sulfurylase
Group II
(I) Retrovirus replication
(II) Base excision repair
(III) Nucleotide excision repair
(IV) Pyrosequencing
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Question 70 of 125
70. Question
Match the terms given in Group I with the descriptions from Group II.
Group I
(P) Photoautotrophs
(Q)Chemoautotrophs
(R) Photoheterotrophs
(S) Chemoheterotrophs
Group II
(I) Use inorganic chemical reactions for energy production
(II) Use organic compounds for energy production
(III) Use sunlight as energy source and carbon dioxide as carbon source
(IV) Use sunlight as energy source and organic compounds as carbon source
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Question 71 of 125
71. Question
One-ml sample of a bacterial culture was serially diluted to 105 times, and 46 colonies were obtained after plating this diluted sample on an agar medium. The number of cells present per ml in the undiluted original sample were_______
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question
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Question 72 of 125
72. Question
The transformation efficiency of competent cells prepared in a laboratory is 104 CFU/μg of plasmid DNA. If 0.01 μg of this plasmid is used to transform these competent cells, the number of transformed bacteria in CFU after plating will be ________
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question
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Question 73 of 125
73. Question
Assume that the average DNA content of a single microbial cell is 4 femtogram. A soil sample analyzed for its microbial community DNA is found to contain 0.32μg DNA per gram of the soil. The number of microbial cells per milligram of the soil are _______
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question
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Question 74 of 125
74. Question
Assume that a bacterial culture has mean generation time of 2 hours. If the number of bacteria present after 24 hours of culture are 4.1 × 107, the initial number of bacteria present were ________
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question
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Question 75 of 125
75. Question
The minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) of an antibiotic X against Clostribdium tetani, Staphylococcus sp., Shigella sp., and Streptococcus sp. is 25, 15, 2 and 1 μg/ml, respectively. Assuming that the bioavailable concentration of X in an animal model is 20 μg/ml, which one of these bacteria may develop resistance against X in the animal model?
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Question 76 of 125
76. Question
Zoology (XL-T)
The characteristic feature of deuterostomes is depicted by
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Question 77 of 125
77. Question
One of the most remarkable features of evolution is the formation of amnion and allantoin. This appeared for the “first time” in evolutionary time scale in
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Question 78 of 125
78. Question
A woman with blood group A gave birth to a baby with blood group AB. The blood group of the father would be
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Question 79 of 125
79. Question
The enzyme amylase can break alpha glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers. Hence amylase can digest which one of the following carbohydrates?
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Question 80 of 125
80. Question
The metabolic pathway which is common to both fermentation and cellular respiration is
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Question 81 of 125
81. Question
A female “Spotted sand piper” courts males repeatedly. This behavior can be explained by the term
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Question 82 of 125
82. Question
Malaria is caused by Plasmodium species, which is a parasite having a complex life cycle. The fusion between male and female gametocytes of Plasmodium happens inside
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Question 83 of 125
83. Question
Aromatase inhibitors are often prescribed for post-menopausal women to treat estrogen receptor positive breast cancer patients, because these class of drugs
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Question 84 of 125
84. Question
The covalent modification performed by kinases which regulate proteins in signaling pathways is
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Question 85 of 125
85. Question
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
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Question 86 of 125
86. Question
A particular species is found to have 2n = 16 chromosomes. The n umber of linkage groups in this species will be ______
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question
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Question 87 of 125
87. Question
In the Meselson and Stahl experiment. E. coli was grown in a medium containing 15NH4Cl. After 24 hours. E. coli were transferred to medium containing 14NH4Cl. After the fourth generation in medium containing 14NH4Cl, the ratio between hybrids (15N/14N) and light (14/14N)labeled DNA will be 1 : n, where the value of n is ______
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question
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Question 88 of 125
88. Question
The population data present in an island is as follows
Genotype Number
AA 300
Aa 500
aa 200
Total 1000
The allele frequency of A(upto two decimals) will be ______
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question
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Question 89 of 125
89. Question
A cell in G1 phase has 16 chromosomes. The total number of chromatids that would be found per cell during Metaphase II of meiosis are _____
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NAT Type Question
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Question 90 of 125
90. Question
Upon activation of phospholipase C by ligand binding to G-protein coupled receptor, the Ca+2 concentration in cytosol will
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Question 91 of 125
91. Question
Match the following molecules in Group I with their function in Group II
Group I Group II
P. Transferrin (i) Uptake of glucose
Q. Insulin (ii) Binds iron
R. α-macroglobulin (iii) Substratum for cell attachment
S. Fibronectin (iv) Proteinase inhibitor
(v) Binds to oxygen in RBC
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Question 92 of 125
92. Question
If a heavy chain of an antibody molecule weighs 65,000 Daltons (Da) and a light chain weighs 25,000 Da, the approximate calculated weight of an IgM antibody in Da will be
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Question 93 of 125
93. Question
MATCH the signaling pathways in Group I with their functions in Group II, during the process of development
Group I
Hedgehog signaling
Hox proteins
Wnt signaling
Notch signaling
Group II
(i) Involved in signaling at 4-cell embryo stage in C. elegans through glp 1 expression
(ii) Involves frizzled receptor on target cell membrane and establish polarity in insects
(iii) Plays critical role in facial morphogenesis in vertebrates and its mutation causes cyclopia
(iv) Required for T-bx transcription factor expression for vertebrate limb development
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Question 94 of 125
94. Question
In a population which is Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium the frequency of the recessive genotype of a certain trait is 0.09. The percentage of individuals with heterozygous genotype is ______%
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question
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Question 95 of 125
95. Question
An enzyme preparation has activity of 2 Units per 20 μl, and protein concentration 0.4 mg/ml. The specific activity (Units/mg) of this enzyme will be_____
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question
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Question 96 of 125
96. Question
Food Technology (XL-U)
Indicate the correct group that contains a monosaccharide, a disaccharide and a trisaccharide.
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Question 97 of 125
97. Question
In which of the following products, ‘must’ is used as the substrate for fermentation?
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Question 98 of 125
98. Question
Identify the foodborne illness which is not caused by bacteria.
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Question 99 of 125
99. Question
Nutrient composition of wheat flour changes with extent of extraction from whole wheat grain. Which of the following statements is true if the extraction rate increased from 50% to 90%?
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Question 100 of 125
100. Question
You have two samples of milk, one (X) with 3.8% fat and another (Y) with 0.5% fat. In order to produce a milk with 3.5% fat, 100 ml of Y should be mixed with ______ml of X.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question
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Question 101 of 125
101. Question
Match the items in column I with the items in column II in relation to food safety and standards.
Column I Column II
P. HACCP 1. International food standards
Q. FSSAI 2. Quality control protocol
R. CIP 3. Food plant sanitation and hygiene protocol
S. CODEX 4. Indian food standards
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Question 102 of 125
102. Question
A 50% sucrose solution at 20℃ is flowing at a rate of 3.5 m3/h through a pipe with an inside diameter of 0.0475 m and length of 12 m. The viscosity and the density of the solution are 15.43 cp and 1232 kg/m3, respectively. The Reynolds number of the flow is ______.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question
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Question 103 of 125
103. Question
In a pineapple juice, fibre particles having mean diameter of 160 μm and density of 1075 kg/m3 are settling by gravity. If the density and viscosity of the juice are 1015 kg/m3 and 0.98 cp, respectively, terminal velocity of the fibre particles is _____mm/s.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question
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Question 104 of 125
104. Question
Power consumption in liquid mixing is proportional to ______.
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Question 105 of 125
105. Question
A dye-reduction test for estimation of viable microorganisms, the most commonly used dyes are methylene blue, triphenyltetrazolium-chloride and _________
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Question 106 of 125
106. Question
Match the following items of group I with the items of group II in relatin to the quality of fat.
Group I
P. Saponification number
Q. Iodine number
R. Reichert Meissl number
S. Acetyl value
Group II
1. Unsaturation of fatty acid
2. Volatile water soluble fatty acid
3. Hydroxy fatty acid
4. Molecular weight of fatty acid
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Question 107 of 125
107. Question
Match the following metabolic product (Column I) that indicates the quality of food (Column II)
Column I Column II
P. Ethanol 1. Canned vegetable
Q. Lactic acid 2. Fish
R. Trimehylamine 3. Butter
S. Volatile fatty acid 4. Apple juice
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Question 108 of 125
108. Question
Correlate the vitamins in column I with their role in promoting reaction/process in column II.
Column I Column II
P. Riboflavin 1. Visual cycle
Q. Vitamin D 2. Acyl group transfer
R. Pantothenic acid 3. Regulation of Ca2+ metabolism
S. Vitamin A 4. Oxidation-reduction reaction
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Question 109 of 125
109. Question
A pure strain with generation time of 60 min is used in a fermentation process. Following inoculation (0 h), the stain takes 2 h for adaptation, 10 h to achieve maximum growth and 12 h to arrive at the point where the death rate is higher than the growth rate. If the inoculation load is 100 cells, the total populatin at the end of 10 h will be ______.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question
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Question 110 of 125
110. Question
Refer to the shear stress – shear rate plot shown in the figure below. Match the lines (Column I) with appropriate rheological behavior (Column II)
Column I Column II
P. Line 1 1. Dilatant
Q. Line 2 2. Newtonian
R. Line 3 3. Pseudoplastic
S. Line 4 4. Bingham plastic
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Question 111 of 125
111. Question
Water flowing at a rate of 1 kg/mi is heated from 12 to 80℃ with flue gas supplied at a rate of 3 kg/min. The temperature and specific heat of the flue gas are 180℃ and 1.05 kJ/kg.K, respectively. If specific heat of water is 4.2 kJ/kg.K and the flow is parallel, then the logarithmic mean temperature difference will be _______℃.
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Question 112 of 125
112. Question
The Lineweaver-Burk plot of an enzymatic reaction shows Vmax of 160 μmol/l.min and km of 60 μmol/l. For a substrate concentration of 40 μmol/l the velocity of the reaction is estimated to be ______μmol/l.min.
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Question 113 of 125
113. Question
A suspension containing 2 × 104 spores of organism A having a D121.1℃ value of 1.5 min and 8 × 105 spores of organism B having a D121.1℃ value of 0.8 min is heated at a constant temperature of 121.1℃. The heating time needed to obtain a probability of spoilage ‘1 in 1000’ is _____min.
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Question 114 of 125
114. Question
In a evaporation process, a compressor picks up 0.05 m3 air in each revolution and compresses 500 kg of air per minute. If the specific volume of air is 0.9 m3/kg, then the compressor speed is _____rpm.
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Question 115 of 125
115. Question
For a soybean oil extraction system, solvent: soy ratio is maintained at 0.5:1 (w/w). Original seed contains 18% oil (w/w). If the meal (soy solid) after final desolventization has 0.01 kg oil per kg oil free meal, then the effectiveness of the solvent (kg oil/kg solvent) in the extraction process is ______
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Question 116 of 125
116. Question
General Aptitude
The event would have been successful if you ______ able to come.
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Question 117 of 125
117. Question
There was no doubt that their work was thorough.
Which of the words below is closest in meaning to the underlined word above?
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Question 118 of 125
118. Question
Four cards lie on a table. Each card has a number printed on one side and a colour on the other. The faces visible on the cards are 2, 3, red, and blue.
Proposition: If a card has an even value on one side, then its opposite face is red.
The cards which MUST be turned over to verify the above proposition are
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Question 119 of 125
119. Question
What is the value of x when
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Question 120 of 125
120. Question
Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability that the product of the numbers appearing on the top faces of the dice is a perfect square is
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Question 121 of 125
121. Question
Bhaichung was observing the pattern of people entering and leaving a car service centre. There was a single window where customers were being served. He saw that people inevitably came out of the centre in the order that they went in. However, the time they spent inside seemed to vary a lot: some people came out in a matter of minutes while for others it took much longer.
From this, what can one conclude?
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Question 122 of 125
122. Question
A map shows the elevations of Darjeeling, Gangtok, Kalimpong, pelling, and Siliguri, Kalimpong is at a lower elevation than Gangtok. Pelling is at a lower elevation than Gangtok. Pelling is at a higher elevation that siliguri. Darjeeling is at a higher elevation than Gangtok.
Which of the following statements can be inferred from the paragraph above?
i. Pelling is at a higher elevation than Kalimpong
ii. Kalimpong is at a lower elevation than Darjeeling
iii. Kalimpong is at a higher elevation than siliguri
iv. Siliguri is at a lower elevation than Gangtok
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Question 123 of 125
123. Question
P,Q,R,S,T and U are seated around a circular table. R is seated two places to the right of Q.P is seated three places to the left of R. S is seated opposite U. If P and U now switch seats.
Which of the following must necessarily be true?
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Question 124 of 125
124. Question
Budhan covers a distance of f19 km in 2 hours by cycling one fourth of the time and walking the rest. The next day he cycles (at the same speed as before) for half the time and walks the rest (at the same speed as before) and covers 26 km in 2 hours. The speed in km/h at which Budhan walks is
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Question 125 of 125
125. Question
The points in the graph below represent the halts of a lift for duration of 1 minute, over a period of 1 hour.
Which of the following statements are correct?
i. The elevator never moves directly from any non-ground floor to another non-ground floor over the one hour period
ii. The elevator stays on the fourth floor for the longest duration over the one hour period
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