Quizsummary
0 of 175 questions completed
Questions:
 1
 2
 3
 4
 5
 6
 7
 8
 9
 10
 11
 12
 13
 14
 15
 16
 17
 18
 19
 20
 21
 22
 23
 24
 25
 26
 27
 28
 29
 30
 31
 32
 33
 34
 35
 36
 37
 38
 39
 40
 41
 42
 43
 44
 45
 46
 47
 48
 49
 50
 51
 52
 53
 54
 55
 56
 57
 58
 59
 60
 61
 62
 63
 64
 65
 66
 67
 68
 69
 70
 71
 72
 73
 74
 75
 76
 77
 78
 79
 80
 81
 82
 83
 84
 85
 86
 87
 88
 89
 90
 91
 92
 93
 94
 95
 96
 97
 98
 99
 100
 101
 102
 103
 104
 105
 106
 107
 108
 109
 110
 111
 112
 113
 114
 115
 116
 117
 118
 119
 120
 121
 122
 123
 124
 125
 126
 127
 128
 129
 130
 131
 132
 133
 134
 135
 136
 137
 138
 139
 140
 141
 142
 143
 144
 145
 146
 147
 148
 149
 150
 151
 152
 153
 154
 155
 156
 157
 158
 159
 160
 161
 162
 163
 164
 165
 166
 167
 168
 169
 170
 171
 172
 173
 174
 175
Information
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to pass the previous Module's quiz in order to start this quiz
Results
Results
0 of 175 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Earned Points: 0 of 0, (0)
0 Essay(s) Pending (Possible Points: 0)
Categories
 Not categorized 0%
 1
 2
 3
 4
 5
 6
 7
 8
 9
 10
 11
 12
 13
 14
 15
 16
 17
 18
 19
 20
 21
 22
 23
 24
 25
 26
 27
 28
 29
 30
 31
 32
 33
 34
 35
 36
 37
 38
 39
 40
 41
 42
 43
 44
 45
 46
 47
 48
 49
 50
 51
 52
 53
 54
 55
 56
 57
 58
 59
 60
 61
 62
 63
 64
 65
 66
 67
 68
 69
 70
 71
 72
 73
 74
 75
 76
 77
 78
 79
 80
 81
 82
 83
 84
 85
 86
 87
 88
 89
 90
 91
 92
 93
 94
 95
 96
 97
 98
 99
 100
 101
 102
 103
 104
 105
 106
 107
 108
 109
 110
 111
 112
 113
 114
 115
 116
 117
 118
 119
 120
 121
 122
 123
 124
 125
 126
 127
 128
 129
 130
 131
 132
 133
 134
 135
 136
 137
 138
 139
 140
 141
 142
 143
 144
 145
 146
 147
 148
 149
 150
 151
 152
 153
 154
 155
 156
 157
 158
 159
 160
 161
 162
 163
 164
 165
 166
 167
 168
 169
 170
 171
 172
 173
 174
 175
 Answered
 Review

Question 1 of 175
1. Question
Engineering Mathematics (XEA) (Compulsory)
If
for some α ≥ 1, then the value of α is ______.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 2 of 175
2. Question
Three fair dice are rolled simultaneously. The probability of getting a sum of 5 is
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 3 of 175
3. Question
Suppose α, β, γ and δ are constants such that
p(x) = δ + γ(x + 1) + βx(x + 1) + αx(x + 1) (x – 1)
is the interpolating polynomial for the data (−1, −3), (0, 1), (1, −1), and (2, −3). Then the value of γ – β is _______.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 4 of 175
4. Question
Consider the ordinary differential equation
yʹʹ + αyʹ + βy = 0,
where α and β are constants. If y(x) = xe^{x} is a solution of the above equation, then the value of β – α is ________.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 5 of 175
5. Question
Consider the system of linear equations
2x + x_{3} = 0
−2x_{1} – x_{3} = 0
−x_{1} + x_{2} = 1.
The above system has
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 6 of 175
6. Question
Let C be a simple smooth closed curve enclosing the region R in the xyplane. Let C be oriented counterclockwise. If the value of the integral is 16, then the area of R is ________.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 7 of 175
7. Question
Consider the ordinary differential equation
x^{2}yʹʹ + xyʹ – y = x, x > 0.
In terms of arbitrary constants c_{1} and c_{2}, the general solution of the above equation is
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 8 of 175
8. Question
Let f : ℝ → ℝ and g : ℝ → ℝ be defined by and where ℝ denotes the set of real numbers. Then, at x = 0,
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 9 of 175
9. Question
If u(x, t) = g(t) sin x is the solution of the wave equation u_{tt} = u_{xx}, t > 0, 0 < x < π, with the initial conditions u(x, 0) = 2 sin x, u_{t}(x, 0) = 0, 0 ≤ x ≤ π, and the boundary conditions u(0, t), = u(π, t) = 0, t ≥ 0, then the value of g(π/3) is _______.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 10 of 175
10. Question
Let where t is a real variable and i = √−1. The value of I is ______.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 11 of 175
11. Question
Let a_{k} = 2^{−k}k^{4} sin k and for k = 1, 2, …. Then
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 12 of 175
12. Question
Fluid Mechanics (XEB)
In a given flow field, the velocity vector in Cartesian coordinate system is given as:
What is the volume dilation rate of the fluid at a point where x = 1, y = 2 and z = 3?
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 13 of 175
13. Question
A steady, incompressible, twodimensional velocity field in Cartesian coordinate system is represented by the following expression.
The coordinate of the point (x, y) in the flow filed having “zero” velocity is,
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 14 of 175
14. Question
During an experiment, the position of a fluid particle is monitored by an instrument over a time period of 10 s. The trace of the particle given by the following figure represents a
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 15 of 175
15. Question
In a Cartesian twodimensional coordinate system, u and v represent the velocities in x and y directions, respectively. For a certain flow, the velocity filed is represented by the following expression:
where, the coefficients a, b, c and d are constants. For an incompressible flow, which one of the following relations is TRUE?
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 16 of 175
16. Question
Which one of the following figures represents potential flow past a circular cylinder with clockwise rotation of the cylinder?
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 17 of 175
17. Question
The stream function (Ψ) of a velocity field at any location(x, y) is given as, Ψ = xy^{2} – 2x^{2}y^{2}. What is the rate of rotation of a fluid element located at (x = 2, y = 2)?
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 18 of 175
18. Question
The nature of velocity profile within the laminar viscous sublayer in a turbulent pipe flow is
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 19 of 175
19. Question
In a 5 m deep vertical cylindrical tank, water is filled up to a level of 3 m from the bottom and the remaining space is filled with oil of specific gravity 0.88. Assume density of water as 1000 kg/m^{3} and acceleration due to gravity to be 10 m/s^{2}. The gauge pressure (in kN/m^{2}, rounded off to the first decimal place) at a depth of 2.5 m from the top of the tank will be______
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 20 of 175
20. Question
In a twodimensional potential flow, a point source is located at the origin (x = 0, y = 0) as shown in the figure. The strength of the point source is 2 cm^{2}/s. A uniform flow with velocity 1 cm/s is approaching towards the point source at an angle of 30° from the horizontal axis. What is the distance (cm) of the stagnation point in the flow field from the point source?
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 21 of 175
21. Question
Two infinite parallel horizontal plates are separated by a small gap(d = 20 mm) as shown in figure. The bottom plate is fixed and the gap between the plates is filled with oil having density of 890 kg/m^{3} and kinematic viscosity of 0.00033 m^{2}/s. A shear flow is induced by moving the upper plate with a velocity of 5 m/s. Assume, linear velocity profile between the plates and the oil to be Newtonian fluid. The shear stress(N/m^{2}) at the upper plate is _______
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 22 of 175
22. Question
A spherical balloon of diameter 15 m is supposed to lift a load of 3000 N. The lifting of load is achieved by heating the air inside the balloon. Assume, air to be an ideal and atmospheric pressure either outside or inside the balloon. The value of acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s^{2} and the values of temperature and density of atmospheric air are 15℃ and 1.2 kg/m^{3}, respectively. In order to lift the specified load, the air inside the balloon should be heated to a temperature (℃) of _______
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 23 of 175
23. Question
The velocity field in Cartesian coordinate system for a twodimensional steady flow is given as :
where, V_{0} and L are constants. Which one of the following expressions represents the acceleration field for this flow?
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 24 of 175
24. Question
A cylindrical tank of 0.8 m diameter is completely filled with water and its top surface is open to atmosphere as shown in the figure. Water is being discharged to the atmosphere from a circular hole of 15 mm diameter located at the bottom of the tank. The value of acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s^{2}. How much time (in seconds) would be required for water level to drop from a height of 1 m to 0.5m?
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 25 of 175
25. Question
Consider steady laminar flow of a incompressible Newtonian fluid between two infinite parallel plates, separated by a distance of 1 m, as shown in the figure. The bottom plate is stationary but the top one is moving in positive xdirection with a velocity of 3 m/s. The fluid pressure gradient in the flow direction is: If the viscosity of the fluid is 1 kg m^{−1} s^{−1} then the distance of the point of maximum velocity (in meters, rounded off to the second decimal place) from the bottom plate would be _______
CorrectIncorrectHint
^{}NAT Type Question

Question 26 of 175
26. Question
An inviscid incompressible fluid of density 1000 kg/m^{3} is flowing in a horizontal pipe of tapered crosssection with a flow rate of 4000 cm^{3}/s. The area of crosssection at two different locations ‘A’ and ‘B’ are 10 cm^{2} and 20 cm^{2}, respectively. The velocity of fluid at the location ‘A’ is 4 m/s and pressure is 5 N/m^{2}. The pressure (N/m^{2}) at location ‘B’ would be ______
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 27 of 175
27. Question
A viscous, incompressible and Newtonian fluid flowing through the main branch of a circular pipe bifurcates into two daughter branches whose radii are 4 cm and 2 cm, respectively. The flow in both the daughter branches are laminar and fully developed. If the pressure gradients in both the daughter branches are same, then fraction of total volumetric flow rate (rounded off to the second decimal place) coming out from the branch with 4 cm diameter is _______
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 28 of 175
28. Question
The volumetric flow rate (Q) of a triangular notch is a function of the upstream liquid surface elevation (H) measured from the bottom of the notch, acceleration due to gravity (g), notch angle (ϕ) and the approach velocity (V). Which one of the following is the correct expression for Q?
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 29 of 175
29. Question
Model tests are to be carried out to study the flow through a large prototype value of 0.6 m diameter at a flow rate of 10 m^{3}/s. The same working fluid is used for both the model and the prototype. A complete geometric similarity is maintained between the model and the prototype. If the valve diameter of the model is 80 mm, its required flow rate (in m^{3}/s, rounded off to the first decimal place) would be ________
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 30 of 175
30. Question
Water is flowing at a rate of 0.5 m^{3}/s in a horizontal pipeline of inside diameter 0.5 m. The density and kinemat4ic viscosity of water is 1000 kg/m^{3} and 10^{−6} m^{2}/s, respectively. Assume DarcyWeisbach friction factor value to be 0.0093 and acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m/s^{2}. To maintain constant flow rate, the required power per unit length of the pipeline (in W/m, rounded off to the first decimal place) would be ______
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 31 of 175
31. Question
Air flows over a smooth flat plate at a velocity of 4.39 m/s. The density of air is 1.031 kg/m^{3} and the kinematic viscosity is 1.34 × 10^{−5} m^{2}/s. The plate length is 12.2 m in the direction of the flow. The boundary layer thickness (δ) is given as where X is the distance from the leading edge and Re_{X} is the Reynlods number. The boundary layer thickness (in meters, rounded off to the second decimal place) at 12.2 m from the leading edge will be ______
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 32 of 175
32. Question
A venturimeter of diameter 0.2 m at the entrance and 0.1 m at the throat is inclined upwards. The vertical elevation difference between the entrance and the throat is 0.5 m. The density of water is 1000 kg/m^{3} and the coefficient of velocity is 0.97. The differential Utube manometer connected to the entrance and throat shows a pressure difference of 30 kN/m^{2}. Assume acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m/s^{2}. The velocity of the water (in m/s, rounded off to the first decimal place) at the throat would be ______
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 33 of 175
33. Question
A spherical bubble of radius r is rising upward with a constant velocity U, in quiescent water of dynamic viscosity μ. The density of air and water are denoted by ρ_{a} and ρ_{w}, respectively, and g is acceleration due to gravity. The bubble motion is such that, the Reynolds number, Re <<1. The density of air can be neglected in comparison to the water density (ρ_{a} << p_{w}). Which one of the following expressions is TRUE for the density of water?
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 34 of 175
34. Question
Material Science (XEC)
Which of the following is a Frenkel defect?
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 35 of 175
35. Question
Which processing technique is best suited for manufacturing decorative PVC floor tiles?
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 36 of 175
36. Question
During deformation of a semicrystalline polymer, with spherulitic morphology, stressed in tension, what happens to the amorphous and the crystalline regions at the later stages?
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 37 of 175
37. Question
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding the structureproperty correlation in polymers?
(i) Polymer that are less coiled are more crystalline than those that are more coiled
(ii) Branched polymers are more crystalline than the linear ones
(iii) Polymers with interchain interactions have higher glass transition than those without interchain interactions
(iv) Polymers with interchain interactions are more crystalline than those without interchain interactions
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 38 of 175
38. Question
The contrast obtained in scanning electron microscope using back scattered electrons depends on
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 39 of 175
39. Question
Ceramic material fail at stresses much lower than their theoretical strength due to
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 40 of 175
40. Question
The Miller indices of the first three Bragg peaks in the Xray diffraction pattern obtained from a polycrystalline iron sample at room temperature are
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 41 of 175
41. Question
The number of close packed planes in the lattice of an FCC metal is
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 42 of 175
42. Question
Which of the following treatment(s) can increase the electrical conductivity of silicon
(i) Heating
(ii) Doping with arsenic
(iii) Doping with aluminium
(iv) Exposure to light
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 43 of 175
43. Question
The unit cell volume of polyethylene (PE) is 0.0933 nm^{3}. Assuming two ethylene repeat units are contained within each unit cell, the density of a totally crystalline PE will be …….g/cm^{3} (Take the atomic weights for carbon and hydrogen as 12.01 g/mol and 1.008 g/mol, respectively and the Avogadro’s number as 6.023 × 10^{23} repeat units/mol)
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 44 of 175
44. Question
A continuous, aligned carbon fibre (CF) reinforced polymer composite with 30 vol% of CF and rest resin was designed for a specific application. The modulus of elasticity of CF is 170 GPa and that of the resin is 3.0 GPa. The modulus of elasticity for this composite in the direction of fibre alignment is ……GPa.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 45 of 175
45. Question
Match the composites in Column I with the most suitable application in Column II
Column I
(P) Exfoliated silicates filled butyl rubber
(Q) Fiber reinforced aluminium alloy
(R) Silicon carbide whiskers reinforced alumina
(S) Carbon particles reinforced plastic composites
Column II
(1) Automobile pistons
(2) Contact lenses
(3) Ski boards
(4) Tennis balls
(5) Cutting tool inserts for machining
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 46 of 175
46. Question
Match the processes in Column I with products in Column II
Column I Column II
(P) Slip casting (1) Metal powders
(Q) Zone refining (2) Thin films
(R) Sputtering (3) Ceramic part
(S) Atomization (4) Single crystal
(5) Metal sheets
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 47 of 175
47. Question
The value of diffusivity (D) for the diffusion of carbon (C) in γiron at 727℃ is …….×10^{−3} m^{2}/s (Given D_{o} = 2 × 10^{−5} m^{2}/s; activation energy, Q = 142 kJ/mol; R = 8.314 J/mol.K)
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 48 of 175
48. Question
Refer to the figure below:
If the alloy contains 47 wt. % of A and 53 wt. % of B at 1300℃, the wt. % of liquid present in the alloy at this temperature will be ……
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 49 of 175
49. Question
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true
(i) All piezoelectric material are necessarily ferroelectric
(ii) All ferroelectric materials are necessarily piezoelectric
(iii) All pyroelectric materials are necessarily piezoelectric
(iv) All pyroelectric materials are necessarily ferroelectric
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 50 of 175
50. Question
If the energy of formation of vacancies in pure copper is 0.9 eV, the fraction of vacancies in pure copper at 27℃ will be …..×10^{−6} (Boltzmann’s constant is 8.62 × 10^{−5} eV/K)
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 51 of 175
51. Question
A ceramic material with a critical flaw size of 30 μm has fracture stress of 300 MPa For the same material the fracture stress for a critical flaw size of 90 μm will be ……..MPa.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 52 of 175
52. Question
An inorganic material that is transparent under solar light appears coloured when doped with transition metal ions. The possible reason(s) for the colour is/are
(i) The electronic energy levels of the host material changes significantly by doping
(ii) The doped element selectively absorbs certain wavelength of light other than the perceived colour
(iii) The doped element emits radiation of specific wavelength
Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 53 of 175
53. Question
Copper in an FCC metal with lattice parameter of 3.62 Å. Hall effect measurement shows electron mobility to be 3.2 × 10^{−3} m^{2}V^{−1}s^{−1}. Electrical resistivity of copper is 1.7 × 10^{−8} Ωm. The average number of free electrons per atom in copper is ……..(Charge of an electron : 1.6 × 10^{−19} C)
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 54 of 175
54. Question
In an ionic solid the cation and the anion have ionic radii as 0.8 Å and 1.6 Å respectively. The maximum coordination number of the cation in the structure will be
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 55 of 175
55. Question
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding susceptibility of a material
(i) Magnetic susceptibility is positive for a diamagnetic material
(ii) Magnetic susceptibility is negative for a diamagnetic material
(iii) Magnetic susceptibility is negative for an antiferromagnetic material
(iv) Magnetic susceptibility is positive for a paramagnetic material
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 56 of 175
56. Question
Solid Mechanics (XED)
In the truss shown, a mass = 10 kg is hung from the node J. .The magnitude of net force (in Newtons) transferred by the truss EFGHIJ onto the trus JKLMNO at the node J is _______.
Assume acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s^{2}
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 57 of 175
57. Question
A ball moves along a planar frictionless slot as shown. Which one of the paths shown closely matches the path taken by the ball after it exits the slot at E?
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 58 of 175
58. Question
A rod EF moving in a plane has velocity V_{E }at E and V_{F} at F that are parallel to each other. Which of the following CANNOT be true?
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 59 of 175
59. Question
The beam shown below carries two external moments. A counterclockwise moment of magnitude 2M acts at point B and a clockwise moment of magnitude M acts at the free end, C. The beam is fixed at A. The shear force at a section close to the fixed end is equal to
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 60 of 175
60. Question
Two pendulum are shown below. PendulumA carries a bob of mass m, hung using a hinged massless rigid rod of length L whereas PendulumB carries a bob of mass 4m and length L/4. The ratio of the natural frequencies of PendulumA and PendulumB is given by
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 61 of 175
61. Question
A closed thinwalled cylindrical steel pressure vessel of wall thickness t = 1mm is subjected to internal pressure. The maximum value of pressure p(in kPa) that the wall can withstand based on the maximum shear stress failure theory is given by
(Yield strength of steel is 200MPa and mean radius of the cylinder r = 1m).
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 62 of 175
62. Question
The state of stress at a point in a body is represented using components of stresses along X and Y directions as shown. Which one of the following represents the state of stress along X’ and Y’ axes? (X’ – axis is at 45° clockwise with respect to Xaxis)
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 63 of 175
63. Question
An aluminum specimen with an initial gauge diameter d_{0} = 10mm and a gauge length l_{0} = 100mm is subjected to tension test. A tensile force P = 50kN is applied at the ends of the specimen as shown resulting in an elongation of 1mm in the gauge length. The Poisson’s ratio (v) of the specimen is _____.
Shear modulus of the material G = 25GPa. Consider engineering stressstrain conditions.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 64 of 175
64. Question
A rectangular sheet ABCD of dimensions a and b along X and Y directions, respectively, is stretched to a rectangle AB’C’D, as shown. The maximum principal strain (ε_{1}) and minimum principal strain (ε_{2}) due to the stretch are given by
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 65 of 175
65. Question
A solid bar of uniform square crosssection of side b and length L is rigidly fixed to the supports at the two ends. When the temperature in the rod is increased uniformly by T_{c}, the bar undergoes elastic buckling. Assume Young’s modulus E and coefficient of thermal expansion α to be independent of temperature. The coefficient of thermal expansion α is given by
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 66 of 175
66. Question
Two rigid blocks, of masses 10 kg and 15 kg, are arranged one on top of the other and placed on a horizontal rough surface as shown. The blocks are connected to each other through an inextensible cable passing over a frictionless pulley. The coefficients of static friction between the blocks and also between the bottom block and the surface are all equal to 0.3. The force P(in Newtons) needed to set the blocks in motion towards right is ______
(Assume acceleration due to gravity g = 10m/s^{2})
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 67 of 175
67. Question
A truss system EFGH shown below is built using members EF, GH and FH of the same crosssectional area 10 mm^{2} and member FG of crosssectional area (20 mm^{2}). The total strain energy stored (in Nm) in the system due to a force P = 1kN acting at F is _______.
Assume elastic deformations and members are made of steel with elastic modulus of 200GPa.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 68 of 175
68. Question
A rigid frame grips on to a steel wall as shown using a powerful magnet at the top support G and with a roller support at E. EF is horizontal. A man stands on the platform attached to the frame 1m away from the wall as shown. Assume the frame and magnet assembly to be of negligible weight and the mass of the man to be 80kg. The magnitude of the reaction (in Newtons) exerted by the frame onto the steel wall due to the weight of the man is ______.
The magnetic force of attraction of the magnet at no load condition is 1kN. Magnet can be assumed to be small enough that it offers negligible moment resistance. Assume accelerations due to gravity. g = 10 m/s^{2}
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 69 of 175
69. Question
A manually operated band brake has a control lever EFG as shown has a coefficient of kinetic friction equal to 0.2. The cylinder initially rotates clockwise at a constant frequency of 10revolutions per second. A force P = 300 N is applied at G. The pin support at O is frictionless. The radius of the cylinder is r = 0.15m and the radius of gyration is 0.1m. The mass of the cylinder is 50 kg. Assume acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s^{2}. The time required (in second) to reduce the rotational frequency to 5 revolutions per second is ______.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 70 of 175
70. Question
In a pinconnected mechanism shown, load P applied at F is 50N. Neglect the weight of the links and assume k = 1kN/m for the spring. The bars EH and FG are pinned at O at their centre such that the lengths of EO, GO, HO and FO are all to ℓ = 0.2 m. The spring between G and H is unstretched when θ = 45°.
The angle θ(in degrees) under equilibrium is ______
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 71 of 175
71. Question
The frame shown below carries a vertical load P = 10kN at its free end D. The frame is fixed at A and has a roller support at B. Magnitude of the reaction force at B(in kN) is ________
Assume that the effect of the axial force on bending is negligible.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 72 of 175
72. Question
Consider the system shown below. Mass M is fixed to the rod AC at a distance x from the hinge point at B. Two springs of stiffness 3K and K are attached at the rod at points A and C, respectively. The natural frequency of angular oscillation of the system about B is 20 rad/s. Assume the rod to be rigid and massless. Magnitude of x(in metres) is _______.
(M = 30 kg, and K = 1kN/m).
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 73 of 175
73. Question
The simply supported beam shown below is subjected to a clockwise moment M at point A and two counterclockwise moments 2M and M at points B and C, respectively. Which one of the following is the correct bending moment diagram (tensile at bottom is positive moment) for the beam?
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 74 of 175
74. Question
The structure shown below is of rectangular cross section and carries a load of 10kN at its free end E. Maximum bending stress (in MPa) developed in the beam due to the external load is ______.
The depth of the beam is 300 mm and the width is 150mm.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 75 of 175
75. Question
Two circular rods shown below carry the same axial load P. The rodA has uniform crosssection and the RodB has nonuniform crosssection as shown. The ratio of elongation of RodA to RodB is given by
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 76 of 175
76. Question
A composite shaft is made of a steel tube with an inner brass core perfectly bonded together as shown. The shaft is fixed at one end and subjected to be torque of 2T at the other end. Shear modulus of steel is G and that of brass is G/2. The outer radius of the steel tube is R =2r and radius of the inner brass core is r. The magnitude of shear stress at the interface (point X) and in the steel tube is closest to
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 77 of 175
77. Question
A massless rod of rectangular crosssection is subjected to a force P at origin O as shown. The expression for the stress σ_{zz} at point Q is given by
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 78 of 175
78. Question
Thermodynamics (XEE)
Given dϕ = f(T)dT + (T/V)dV and dΨ = Tdp + (T/p^{2})dV, then
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 79 of 175
79. Question
A paddle wheel is installed in a rigid insulated tank containing 10 kg air (C_{v} = 0.718 kJ/kg.K). A torque of 100 N.m is applied on the paddle wheel to rotate it at 60 revolutions per minute for 2 minutes. At the end of the process, the increase in temperature of air in ℃ is
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 80 of 175
80. Question
Consider two systems each containing 20 kg of air at the same temperature and pressure. It is desired to increase the temperature of the air in both systems by 10℃. One system undergoes a constant pressure heat addition process and the other undergoes a constant volume heat addition. The difference in the values of heat transferred to the two systems in kJ is
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 81 of 175
81. Question
A refrigerator is used to maintain certain space at 10℃. It pumps 18000 kJ/hour of heat from the space to the atmosphere at 30℃. If the power input to the refrigerator is 2 kW, the ratio of COP of this refrigerator to the of a Carnot refrigerator (up to 2 decimal places) is _______.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 82 of 175
82. Question
A thermal cycle receives 2000 kJ of heat from a heat source at 1000 K. It rejects 300 kJ of heat to a heat sink at 300 K and also rejects 250 kJ of heat to another heat sink at 200 K during the cycle. The cycle is
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 83 of 175
83. Question
Saturated liquid water is slowly heated at a constant pressure of 200 kPa toa final state where its quality reaches 0.65. For water at 200 kPa: T_{sat} = 120.23℃, h_{f} = 504.68 kJ/kg, h_{g} = 2706.60 kJ/kg. The change in the specific entropy in kJ/kg.K is
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 84 of 175
84. Question
Given the thermodynamic functional relations: p = p(v, T) and T = T(p, v), the term is equal to
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 85 of 175
85. Question
Two closed cycle gas turbine engines, A and B, operate on air standard Brayton cycle with efficiencies of n_{A} and n_{B}, respectively. If they operate between the same maximum and minimum temperatures, but with different pressure ratios of r_{pA} and r_{pB}, (r_{pA} > r_{pB}), then,
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 86 of 175
86. Question
The values of density and isentropic compressibility of water at certain pressure and temperature are given as 1000 kg/m^{3} and 40 × 10^{−10} Pa^{−1}, respectively. The speed at which sound travels in water under these conditions in m/s is equal to ________.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 87 of 175
87. Question
Length of a certain metal rod at 0℃ is 10 c. The coefficient of linear expansion of that metal varies with temperature as 10^{−4} + 10^{−5} × T (cm/cm)/℃. When the length of the metal rod is 10.2 cm, the rise in temperature in ℃ is ______.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 88 of 175
88. Question
In a polytropic compression process, one kg of an ideal gas having a molecule weight of 40 kg/kmol is compressed from 100 kPa, 300 K to 400 kPa, 360 K. The magnitude of the work in kJ for the process is
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 89 of 175
89. Question
Two streams of air (C_{p} = 1005 J/kg.K) flow through insulated pipes 1 and 2 with the conditions as shown in figure. They mix in an insulated pipe3 and the mixture steadily exits with a velocity of 100 m/s at 150 kPa. Neglecting the change in potential energy in all the pipes, the exit area of the pipe3 in m^{2}(up to 3 decimal places) is ______.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 90 of 175
90. Question
A 1 m^{3} rigid vessel contains air at 200 kPa. A vacuum pump is connected to the vessel in order to control the pressure inside. The volume flow rate of air through the pump is maintained at a constant value of 0.1 m^{3}/s. If the pump operates for 10 seconds and the temperature of the air is maintained constant during operations, the pressure in the tank in kPa after 10 seconds (up to 2 decimal places) is ________.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 91 of 175
91. Question
A heat engine receives Q_{1} kJ of heat from a hot reservoir and rejects Q_{2}kJ of heat to a cold reservoir. The work delivered by the heat engine is entirely supplied to a heat pump, which receives Q_{3}kJ of heat from another reservoir and rejects Q_{4}kJ of heat to the same cold reservoir. If the efficiency of the heat engine is 0.4 and COP of heat pump is 4.0, the value of (Q_{2} + Q_{4}/Q_{1} (up to 1 decimal place) is ______.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 92 of 175
92. Question
A block of ice of mass 2 kg at 0℃ is dropped into an insulated vessel containing 10 kg of liquid water at 25℃. The latent heat of melting of ice is 330 kJ/kg and specific heat of water is 4.2 kJ/kg.K. The change in the entropy of the universe in kJ/K (up to 3 decimal places) is ______
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 93 of 175
93. Question
A pure substance (C_{v} = 0.733 kJ/kg.K) undergoes a reversible process in which its temperature increases linearly from 40℃ to 85℃ and its specific entropy increases by 600 J/kg.K. The work done by the system in kJ/kg is
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 94 of 175
94. Question
An ideal gas having a mass of 0.5 kg is initially at 300 kPa, 80℃ and occupies a volume of 0.14 m^{3}. The gas undergoes an adiabatic process, where 50 kJ of work is transferred to the gas. The pressure and volume at the final state are 300 kPa and 0.20 m^{3}. The change in the entropy of the gas in J/K is
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 95 of 175
95. Question
The van der Waals equation of state is given as,
, where p in bar, v in m^{3}/kmol and T is in K.
For air, the constants, a and b, are 1.368 bar.(m^{3}/kmol)^{2} and 0.0367 m^{3}/kmol, respectively. Air is contained in a system at 160 K and 0.08 m^{3}/kmol. If p_{1} is the pressure calculated using ideal gas equation of state and p_{2} is pressure calculated using van der Walls equation of state, then p_{1}/p_{2} is equal to
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 96 of 175
96. Question
The values of specific volume of H_{2}O at 100℃ for saturated liquid and saturated vapor states are 0.001044 m^{3}/kg and 1.673 m^{3}/kg, respectively. The slope of saturation pressure versus temperature curve, i.e., (dp/dT)_{sat } is 3570 Pa/K. The change in enthalpy in kJ/kg between the two saturation states is ______.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 97 of 175
97. Question
In a steam power plant, stem is first expanded isentropically in a turbine from an initial condition of 100 bar and 500℃ to a pressure of 40 bar. Then the steam is reheated up to 500℃ at constant pressure. The steam is then expanded isentropically in another turbine up to a condenser pressure 0.01 bar. For steam, at 100 bar, 500℃: h = 3373.7 kJ/kg, s = 6.5966 kJ/kg.K; at 40 bar, 500℃: h = 3445.3 kJ/kg, s = 7.0901 kJ/kg.K and at 0.01 bar: h_{f} = 29.3 kJ/kg, h_{g} = 2514.2 kJ/kg, s_{f} = 0.1059 kJ/kg.K, s_{g} = 8.9756 kJ/kg.K. The dryness fraction at the condenser inlet (up to 2 decimal places) is _________.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 98 of 175
98. Question
Air contains by volume 79% N_{2}(molecular weight = 28 kg/kmol) and 21% O_{2}(molecular weight = 32 kg/kmol)). A stream of air flows at 32℃, 1 bar, at a rate of 2 m^{3}/s and is mixed with another stream of O_{2} flowing at 0.4 kg/s. The molecular weight of the mixture (up to 2 decimal places) is _____.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 99 of 175
99. Question
Moist air enters a duct at a rate of 3 kg/s at 10℃, 80% relative humidity. The air is heated as it flows through the duct and exits at 30℃. No moisture is added or removed and the pressure of air in the duct is constant at 1 bar. The saturation vapor pressure (p_{g}) of H_{2}O at 10℃ is 0.01228 bar. Specific enthalpy values of dry air at inlet and outlet of the duct are respectively 283.1 kJ/kg and 303.2 kJ/kg. The corresponding specific enthalpy values for water vapor are 2519.8 kJ/kg and 2556.3 kJ/kg. For steady state operation the amount of heat added to the moist air in kW (up to 2 decimal places) is ______.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 100 of 175
100. Question
Polymer Science and Engineering (XEF)
Poly(ethylene terephthalate) is synthesized from
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 101 of 175
101. Question
Poly(vinyl chloride) has a higher T_{g} than polypropylene due to the presence of
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 102 of 175
102. Question
The filler which would impart electrical conductivity to a polymer is
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 103 of 175
103. Question
Which one of the following catalysts is used to prepare ‘isotactic’ polypropylene?
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 104 of 175
104. Question
Novolac and resole are Astage low molecular weight phenolic resin products that are
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 105 of 175
105. Question
Which of the following reagents can act as an initiator at room temperature?
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 106 of 175
106. Question
The impact strength of polystyrene can be enhanced by blending/mixing with
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 107 of 175
107. Question
The melt processing temperatures of a semicrystalline thermoplastic polymer is
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 108 of 175
108. Question
The unit of viscosity of a polymer is expressed as
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 109 of 175
109. Question
Based on the graph 15, which option best describes the stressstrain behavior of materials listed as P, Q, R, S and T
PHard and brittle
QHard and tough
RSoft and weak
SHard and strong
TSoft and tough
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 110 of 175
110. Question
The two characterization techniques which can be used to determine degree of crystallinity of a polymer are
P. Scanning Electron Microscopy
Q.Thermogravimetric Analysis
R. Wide Angle Xray Diffraction
S. Differential Scanning Calorimetry
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 111 of 175
111. Question
The density of polyethylene crystals is 998 kg/m^{3} and that of totally amorphous polyethylene is 886 kg/m^{3}. If the density of a polyethylene sample is 949 kg/m^{3}, the crystallinity in volume fraction is ______% (round off final answer to two digits after decimal place).
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 112 of 175
112. Question
The polydispersity index of a polymer sample containing 200 molecules each of molecular weight 10,000 gmol^{−1}, 300 molecules each of molecular weight 30,000 gmol^{−1} and 500 molecules each of molecular weight 50,000 gmol^{−1} is _______(round off final answer to two digits after decimal place).
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 113 of 175
113. Question
Match the following rubber additives to their function:
Additive Function
P. Dicumyl peroxide 1. Ultrafast accelerator
Q. Pentachlorothiophenol 2. Activator
R. ZnO with stearic acid 3. Curing agent
S. Zinc diethyldithiocarbamate 4. Peptizer
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 114 of 175
114. Question
A composite of polypropylene reinforced with 20% by volume of glass fibre is to be prepared. If the density of glass fibre is 2540 kg/m^{3} and polypropylene is 900 kg/m^{3}, then the mass of glass fibre required per kg composite is ______g(round off answer to the nearest whole number).
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 115 of 175
115. Question
Match the following terminology to the appropriate polymer processing technique:
Terminology Processing Technique
P. Dieswell 1. Two roll mill mixing
Q. Breathing 2. Thermoforming
R. Plugassisted 3. Extrusion
S. Mastication 4. Compression moulding
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 116 of 175
116. Question
Match the polymer in Column A to its application in Column B:
Column A Column B
P. Nylon 1. Television cabinet
Q. Polyethylene 2. Tyre
R. Cis1, 4polyisoprene 3. Mechanical gear
S. Acrylonitrilebutadienestyrene 4. Packaging
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 117 of 175
117. Question
For the polycondensation of equimolar amounts of adipic acid with hexamethylene diamine, if the number average degree of polymerization is 100, then the extent of reaction is ______%.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 118 of 175
118. Question
The relaxation time for a rubber band at 23℃ is 60 days. If it is stressed to 2 MPa initially, then the time required before the stress relaxes to 1 MPa is ______days (round of final answer to two digit after decimal point).
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 119 of 175
119. Question
Match the processing technique in Column A to the corresponding shear rate (s^{−}^{1}) in Column B:
Column A Column B
P. Injection Moulding 1. 110
Q. Extrusion 2. 10100
R. Calendering 3. 1001000
S. Compression Moulding 4. 100010000
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 120 of 175
120. Question
Given T_{g} of polymer A is 100℃ and that of polymer B is −100℃ , then the T_{g} of a miscible blend of A and B containing 30 wt% of A is _____℃(round off final answer to angle digit after decimal point).
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 121 of 175
121. Question
Match plots 14 given in the figure below with the correct flow behavior of polymeric fluid listed as P, Q, R & S:
P. Newtonian
Q. Shear thickening
R. Pseudoplastic
S. Bingham plastic
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 122 of 175
122. Question
Food Technology (XEG)
Indicate the correct group that contains a monosaccharide, a disaccharide and a trisaccharide.
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 123 of 175
123. Question
In which of the following products, ‘must’ is used as the substrate for fermentation?
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 124 of 175
124. Question
Identify the foodborne illness which is not caused by bacteria.
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 125 of 175
125. Question
Nutrient composition of wheat flour changes with extent of extraction from whole wheat grain. Which of the following statements is true if the extraction rate increased from 50% to 90%?
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 126 of 175
126. Question
You have two samples of milk, one (X) with 3.8% fat and another (Y) with 0.5% fat. In order to produce a milk with 3.5% fat, 100 ml of Y should be mixed with ____ ml of X.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 127 of 175
127. Question
Match the items in column I with the items in column II in relation to food safety and standards.
Column I Column II
P. HACCP 1.International food standards
Q. FSSAI 2. Quality control protocol
R. CIP 3. Food plant sanitation and hygiene protocol
S. CODEX 4. Indian food standards
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 128 of 175
128. Question
A 50% sucrose solution at 20℃ is flowing at a rate of 3.5 m^{3}/h through a pipe with an inside diameter of 0.0475 m and length of 12 m. The viscosity and the density of the solution are 15.43 cp and 1232 kg/m^{3}, respectively. The Reynolds number of the flow is ______.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 129 of 175
129. Question
In a pineapple juice, fibre particles having mean diameter of 160 μm and density of 1075 kg/m^{3} are settling by gravity. If the density and viscosity of the juice are 1015 kg/m^{3} and 0.98 cp, respectively, terminal velocity of the fibre particles is ______mm/s.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 130 of 175
130. Question
Power consumption in liquid mixing is proportional to ______.
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 131 of 175
131. Question
Match the following items of group I with items group II in relation to the quality of fat.
Group I Group II
P. Saponification number 1. Unsaturation of fatty acid
Q. Iodine number 2. Volatile water soluble fatty acid
R. Reichert Meissel number 3. Hydroxy fatty acid
S. Acetyl value 4. Molecular weight of fatty acid
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 132 of 175
132. Question
Match the following metabolic product (Column I) that indicates the quality of food (Column II).
Column I Column II
P. Ethanol 1. Canned vegetable
Q. Lactic acid 2. Fish
R. Trimehylamine 3. Butter
S. Volatile fatty acid 4. Apple juice
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 133 of 175
133. Question
Correlate the vitamins in column I with their role in promoting reaction/process in column II.
Column I Column II
P. Ribofalvin 1. Visual cycle
Q. Vitamin D 2. Acyl group transfer
R. Pantothenic acid 3. Regulation of Ca^{2+} metabolism
S. Vitamin A 4. Oxidationreduction reaction
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 134 of 175
134. Question
A pure strain with generation time of 60 min is used in a fermentation process. Following inoculation (0 h), the strain takes 2 h for adaptation, 10 h to achieve maximum growth and 12 h to arrive at the point where the death rate is higher than the growth rate. If the inoculation load is 100 cells, the total population at the end of 10 h will be ______
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 135 of 175
135. Question
Refer the shear stress – shear rate plot shown in the figure below. Match the lines (Column I) with appropriate rheological behavior (Column II).
Column I Column II
P. Line 1 1. Dilatant
Q. Line 2 2. Newtonian
R. Line 3 3. Pseudoplastic
S. Line 4 4. Bingham plastic
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 136 of 175
136. Question
Water flowing at a rate of 1 kg/min is heated from 12 to 80℃ with flue g as supplied at a rate of 3 kg/min. The temperature and specific heat of the flue gas are 180℃ and 1.05 kJ/kg.K, respectively. If specific heat of water is 4.2 kJ/kg.K and the flow is parallel, then the logarithmic mean temperature difference will be ______℃
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 137 of 175
137. Question
The LineweaverBurk plot of an enzymatic reaction shows V_{max} of 160 μmol/l.min and k_{m} of 60 μmol/l. For a substrate concentration of 40 μmol/l, the velocity of the reaction is estimated to be ______μmol/l.min.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 138 of 175
138. Question
Bread is wrapped in 0.1 mm thick cellophane film having water vapour permeability of 1.82 × 10^{−10} m^{3} water (STP)/s.m^{2}.atm/m at 38℃. If the surface area of pack, vapour pressure of water inside and outside of the pack is 0.20 m^{2}, 10 mm Hg and 5 mm Hg, respectively, the loss of water vapour at 38℃ in g/day is ______.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 139 of 175
139. Question
Match the following methods/system (column I) with the appropriate operations (column II)
Column I Column II
P. Parboiling 1. Sugarcane juice extraction
Q. Pearling 2. Hydrothermal treatment
R. Wet milling 3. Corn milling
S. Degerming 4. Wheat milling
T. Break rolls 5. Barley processing
U. Crushing rolls 6. Pulse milling
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 140 of 175
140. Question
A 12 mm thick fish filler having 80% moisture content (wet basis) is to be frozen using a plate freezer. The plates maintained at −35℃. Assume the heat transfer coefficient, initial freezing temperature and latent heat of fusion are 2.0 W/m^{2} K, −2℃ and 330 kJ/kg, respectively. If the density and thermal conductivity of frozen fish filler are 1050 kg/m^{3} and 1.48 W/mK, respectively, the time required to freeze the fillet from the initial freezing temperature is ______h.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 141 of 175
141. Question
A suspension containing 2 × 10^{4} spores of organism A having a D_{121.1}_{℃} value of 1.5 min and 8 × 10^{5} spores organism B having a D_{121.1}_{℃} value of 0.8 min is heated at a constant temperature of 121.1℃. The heating time needed to obtain a probability of spoilage ‘1 in 1000’ is ____min.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 142 of 175
142. Question
In an evaporation process, a compressor picks up 0.05 m^{3} air in each revolution and compresses 500 kg of air per minute. If the specific volume of air is 0.9 m^{3}/kg, then the compressor speed is _____ rpm.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 143 of 175
143. Question
For a soybean oil extraction system, solvent : soy ratio is maintained at 0.5 : 1 (w/w). Original seed contains 18% oil (w/w). If the meal (soy solid) after final desolventization has 0.01 kg oil per kg oil free meal then, the effectiveness of the solvent (kg oil/kg solvent) in the extraction process is _____
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 144 of 175
144. Question
Atmospheric and Oceanic Sciences (XEH)
Rossby Number is the ratio of
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 145 of 175
145. Question
Kuroshio Current and Gulf Stream are
[WBC : Western Boundary Current, EBC : Eastern Boundary Current]
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 146 of 175
146. Question
The velocity of a tsunami wave in an ocean basin of depth 1 km is _____ ms^{−}^{1}
[Density of seawater : 1025 kg m^{−3}, g: 10 ms^{−2}]
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 147 of 175
147. Question
A thin iceberg is observed to move southeastward in the Arctic Ocean. If the surface current is wind driven, the prevailing wind is
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 148 of 175
148. Question
Equatorial Kelvin and Rossby waves respectively propagate
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 149 of 175
149. Question
The largest contributor to the atmospheric greenhouse effect is
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 150 of 175
150. Question
If T_{v}, T, T_{w} and T_{d} denote virtual, dry bulb, wet bulb and dew point temperatures of a moist air parcel, then the correct order of their values is
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 151 of 175
151. Question
Burning of fossil fuel is increasing the concentration of CO_{2} in the atmosphere. A consequence of this is
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 152 of 175
152. Question
Mixed layer depths measured in the Pacific Ocean in two different years are schematically shown in the figure below.
Years P and Q belong to
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 153 of 175
153. Question
Average surface temperatures of the Sun and the Earth are 6300 K and 285 K, respectively. The ratio of the wavelength of peak radiation of the Earth to that of the Sun is _______.
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 154 of 175
154. Question
In the month of April, the mixed layer in the Arabian Sea received a net heat flux of 50 W m^{−}^{2}. If the mixed layer depth is 50 m, the increase in temperature at the end of April is ______℃
[Density of seawater: 1025 kg m^{−3}, Density of freshwater : 1000 kg m^{−3}, Specific heat of seawater: 4200 J kg^{−1} K^{−1}, Latent heat of evaporation: 2.45 × 10^{6} J kg^{−1}]
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 155 of 175
155. Question
The thickness of an atmospheric layer between 600 hPa and 500 hPa is 1.5 km. If the layer is isothermal, then its temperature is _____K.
[Gas constant of air: 287 J kg^{−1} K^{−1}, g : 10 ms^{−2}]
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 156 of 175
156. Question
At 17°N, a mass of fluid moving under geostrophic balance at 0.3 ms^{−1} towards east. Suddenly the pressure gradient force becomes zero. Then the fluid will
[Angular velocity of the Earth: 7.27 × 10^{−}^{5} rad s^{−}^{1}]
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 157 of 175
157. Question
At 45°N, wind is blowing northward and its magnitude decreases eastward from 10 ms^{−}^{1} to 1 ms^{−}^{1} over a distance of 18 km. The absolute vorticity of the flow is ________× 10^{−}^{4} s^{−}^{1}
(Angular velocity of the Earth: 7.27 × 10^{−5} rad s^{−1}]
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 158 of 175
158. Question
Sea surface height anomalies at the locations A, B, C and D are −10, −15, 5 and 0 cm respectively.
The magnitude of geostrophic velocity at P is _____ms^{−}^{1}.
[Take 1° = 100 km, g = 10 ms^{−2}, Angular velocity of the Earth: 7.27 × 10^{−5} rad s^{−1}]
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 159 of 175
159. Question
In a severe tropical cyclone, 250 m of rainfall occurs in an area having a radius of 200 km. If the energy supplied to the system from this rainfall is N times the energy of one atomic bomb (=1.5 × 10^{15} kJ), then the value of N is _______.
[Density of freshwater: 1000 kg m^{−3}, Specific heat of seawater: 4200 J kg^{−1} K^{−1}, Latent heat of evaporation: 2.45 × 10^{6} J kg^{−1}]
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 160 of 175
160. Question
A student wants to numerically solve the linear 1D advection equation where c = 300 ms^{−1}. The value of the maximum timestep the student can consider according to CFL criterion for a spatial resolution of 3 km is
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 161 of 175
161. Question
Planets in the solar system are in radiative equilibrium. Let S_{0}, α, T_{0} and R denote solar constant, albedo, average temperature and radius of a planet, respectively, and σ is Stefan’s constant. Then the energy balance of this planet is given by the expression
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 162 of 175
162. Question
A cumulonimbus cloud forms by an air parcel rising from the sea level with an initial temperature and specific humidity of 27℃ and 20 gm kg^{−}^{1}, respectively. Assume that moist static energy is conserved in this cloud. Then the cloud temperature at an altitude of 15 km is ______K.
[Specific heat of dry air at constant pressure: 1005 J kg^{−1} K^{−1}, Specific heat of water vapour at constant pressure: 1850 J kg^{−1} K^{−1}, g = 10 ms^{−2}, Latent heat of evaporation 2.45 × 10^{6} J kg^{−1}]
CorrectIncorrectHint
NAT Type Question

Question 163 of 175
163. Question
If u_{g} and v_{g} are respectively zonal and meridional components of a flow field in geostrophic balance, then the divergence of this flow is
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 164 of 175
164. Question
During the Indian summer monsoon season, depressions do not intensify to tropical cyclones because
P: Indian subcontinent is very hot and large landsea temperature difference pulls depressions quickly to land before they can intensify into cyclones.
Q: southwesterly winds at low level are not conductive for the formation of tropical cyclones.
R: SST cooling due to strong monsoonal winds prevents cyclone formation.
S: strong zonal wind shear during the monsoon season does not allow warm core formation.
Which of the above statement(s) is(are) correct
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 165 of 175
165. Question
Which among the following statement(s) is (are) correct,
P: ENSO and ElNino are the same refer to the warming of Equatorial Eastern Pacific SST.
Q: ENSO is an atmosphereocean coupled phenomenon and ElNino is its oceanic part.
R: ENSO is an atmospheric phenomenon and ElNino is an oceanic phenomenon
S: ENSO is the oscialltory component of ElNino having a period of 4.7 years.
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 166 of 175
166. Question
General Aptitude
The event would have been successful if you ______ able to come.
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 167 of 175
167. Question
There was no doubt that their work was thorough.
Which of the words below is closest in meaning to the underlined word above?
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 168 of 175
168. Question
Four cards lie on a table. Each card has a number printed on one side and a colour on the other. The faces visible on the cards are 2, 3, red, and blue.
Proposition: If a card has an even value on one side, then its opposite face is red.
The cards which MUST be turned over to verify the above proposition are
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 169 of 175
169. Question
What is the value of x when
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 170 of 175
170. Question
Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability that the product of the numbers appearing on the top faces of the dice is a perfect square is
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 171 of 175
171. Question
Bhaichung was observing the pattern of people entering and leaving a car service centre. There was a single window where customers were being served. He saw that people inevitably came out of the centre in the order that they went in. However, the time they spent inside seemed to vary a lot: some people came out in a matter of minutes while for others it took much longer.
From this, what can one conclude?
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 172 of 175
172. Question
A map shows the elevations of Darjeeling, Gangtok, Kalimpong, pelling, and Siliguri, Kalimpong is at a lower elevation than Gangtok. Pelling is at a lower elevation than Gangtok. Pelling is at a higher elevation that siliguri. Darjeeling is at a higher elevation than Gangtok.
Which of the following statements can be inferred from the paragraph above?
i. Pelling is at a higher elevation than Kalimpong
ii. Kalimpong is at a lower elevation than Darjeeling
iii. Kalimpong is at a higher elevation than siliguri
iv. Siliguri is at a lower elevation than Gangtok
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 173 of 175
173. Question
P,Q,R,S,T and U are seated around a circular table. R is seated two places to the right of Q.P is seated three places to the left of R. S is seated opposite U. If P and U now switch seats.
Which of the following must necessarily be true?
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 174 of 175
174. Question
Budhan covers a distance of f19 km in 2 hours by cycling one fourth of the time and walking the rest. The next day he cycles (at the same speed as before) for half the time and walks the rest (at the same speed as before) and covers 26 km in 2 hours. The speed in km/h at which Budhan walks is
CorrectIncorrect 
Question 175 of 175
175. Question
The points in the graph below represent the halts of a lift for duration of 1 minute, over a period of 1 hour.
Which of the following statements are correct?
i. The elevator never moves directly from any nonground floor to another nonground floor over the one hour period
ii. The elevator stays on the fourth floor for the longest duration over the one hour period
CorrectIncorrect