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Assuming that about 200 MeV energy is released per fission of _{92}U^{235} nuclei, what would be the mass of U^{235} consumed per day in the fission of reactor of power 1 MW approximately?
A parallel plate capacitor is charged and the charging battery is then disconnected. If the plates of the capacitor are moved further apart by means of insulating handles then
A thin wire of length l and uniform linear mass density ρ is bent into a circular loop with centre O and radius r as shown in figure. The moment of inertia of the loop about the axis XX’ is
Two cells of e.m.f.s 1.5 V and 2.0 V and internal resistances 2 ohm and 1 ohm respectively have their negative terminals joined by a wire of 6 ohm and positive terminals by a wire of 7 ohm resistance. A third resistance wire of 8 ohm connects middle points of these wires. Find the potential difference at the end of the third wire.
Six charges are placed at the corner of a regular hexagon as shown. If an electron is placed at its centre O, then the force on it will be :
An inductance of (100/π) mH, a capacitance of F and a resistance of 6.75 Ω are connected in series with an AC source 220 V, 40 Hz. The phase angle of the circuit is
A photon of energy and momentum collides with an electron at rest. After the collision, the scattered electron and the scattered photon each make an angle of 45° with the initial direction of motion. The ratio of frequency of scattered and incident photon is
Two spherical soap bubbles of radii R_{1} and R_{2} combine under isothermal condition to form a single bubble. The radius of the resultant bubble is
If the distance between the earth and the sun were one third of its present value, the no. of days in a year would have been
Three blocks of masses m, 3m and 5m are connected by massless strings and pulled by a force F on a frictionless surface as shown in the figure below. The tension P in the first string is 16 N
If the point of application of F is changed as given below,
the values of P’ and Q’ will be
A conducting ring of radius 1 metre is placed in an uniform magnetic field B of 0.01 Tesla oscillating with frequency 100 Hz with its plane at right angle to B. What will be the induced electric field?
If 10% of the radioactive material decays in 5 days, what would be percentage of amount of original material left after 20 days?
The displacement of a particle moving in a straight line depends on time as x = αt^{3} + βt^{2} + γt + δ . The ratio of initial acceleration to its initial velocity depends
A student is standing at a distance of 50 metre from the bus. As soon as the bus begins its motion with an acceleration of 1 ms^{-2}, the student starts running towards the bus with a uniform velocity u. Assuming the motion to be along a straight road, the minimum value of u, so that the student is able to catch the bus is
Calculate the increase in energy of a brass bar of length 0.2 m and cross sectional area 1 cm^{2} when compressed with a load of 5 kg weight along its length. Young’s modulus of brass = 1.0 × 10^{11} Nm^{-2}.
The apparent depth of water in cylindrical water tank of diameter 2R cm is reducing at the rate of x cm/minute when water is being drained out at a constant rate. The amount of water drained in c.c per minute is: (n_{1} = refractive index of air, n_{2} = refractive index of water)
A lens is made of flint glass (refractive index = 1.5). When the lens is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.25, the focal length:
Which of the following spherical lenses doesn’t exhibit dispersion? The radii of curvature of the surfaces of the lenses are given in the diagrams?
A particle executes simple Harmonic motion in a line of 5 cm long. When it passes through the centre of line, its velocity is 15 cm/s. Find its frequency.
Water from a tap emerges vertically downward with an initial speed of 1 m/s. The cross-sectional area of the tap is 10^{-4} m^{2}. Assume that the pressure is constant throughout the stream of water and the flow is steady. What is the cross-sectional area of the stream 0.15m below the tap?
A rectangular film of liquid is extended from 7cm × 5 cm to 9 cm × 8 cm. If the work done is 4 × 10⁻^{4}J. Find the surface tension of liquid.
The maximum velocity of a particle executing S.H.M with an amplitude 14 mm is 4.4 m/s. The period of oscillation is
Where is the centre of mass of a binary system with a white dwarf star of mass (M) and a Red – giant star (m) separated by a distance (p)?
A bimetallic strip is formed out of two identical strips, one of copper and the other of brass. The coefficients of linear expansion of the two metals are α_{c} and α_{B}. On heating, the temperature of the strip increases by ∆T and the strip bends to form an arc of radius R. Then R is proportional to
A tank is filled with water upto height H. When a hole is made at a distance h below the level of water. What will be the horizontal range of water jet ?
L, C and R represent the physical quantities inductance, capacitance and resistance respectively. Which of the following combinations represents time?
In the diffraction from a single slit of width 2.5 λ, the total number of minimas and secondary maximum (maxima) on either side of the central maximum are
A coil of inductance 8.4 mH and resistance 6 Ω is connected to a 12 V battery. The current in the coil is 1.0 A at approximately the time
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The current voltage relation of diode is given by I=(e^{1000V/T} – 1)mA, where the applied voltage V is in volts and the temperature T is in degree Kelvin. If a student makes and error measuring ±0.01 V while measuring the current of 5 mA at 300 K, what will be the error in the value of current in mA?
From a tower of height H, a particle is thrown vertically upwards with a speed u. The time taken by the particle, to hit the ground, is a n times that taken by it to reach the highest point of its path. The relation between H, u and n is :
A mass ;m’ supported by a massless string wound around a uniform hollow cylinder of mass m and radius R. If the string does not slip on the cylinder, with what acceleration will the mass fall on release?
A block of mass m is placed on a surface with a vertical cross section given by If the coefficient of friction is 0.5, the maximum height above the ground at which the block can be placed
without slipping is
When a rubber-band is stretched by a distance x, it exerts a restoring force of magnitude F = ax – bx2 where a and b are constants. The work done in stretching the unstretched rubber-band by L is :
A bob of mass m attached to an inextensible string of length l is suspended from a vertical support. The bob rotates in a horizontal circle with a angular speed ω rad/s about the vertical. About the point of suspension :
Four particles, each of mass M and equidistant from each other, move along a circle of radius R under the action of their mutual gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle is :
The pressure that has to be applied to the ends of a steel wire of length 10 cm to keep its length
constant when its temperature is raised by 100℃ is :
(For steel Young’s modulus is 2 × 10^{11 }Nm^{-2} and coefficient of thermal expansion is 1.1 × 10^{-5} K^{-1})
There is a circular tube in a vertical plane. Two liquids which do not mix and of densities d1 and d2 are filled in the tube. Each liquid subtends 90° angle at centre. Radius joining their interface makes an angle α with vertical. Ratio is :
On hearing water, bubbles being formed at the bottom of the vessel detatch and rise. Take the bubbles to be spheres of radius R and making a circular contact of radius r with the bottom of the vessel. If r << R, and the surface tension of water is T, value of r just before bubbles detatch is :
(density of water is ρ_{w})
Three rods of Copper, Brass and Steel are welded together to form a Y-shaped structure. Area of cross the vessel. If r <<R, and the surface cross-section of each rod = 4 cm^{2}. End of copper rod is maintained at 100℃ where as ends of brass and steel are kept at 0℃. Lengths of the copper, brass and steel rods are 46, 13 and 12 cms respectively. The rods are thermally insulated from surroundings except at ends. Thermal conductivities of copper, brass and steel are 0.92, 0.26 and 0.12 CGS units respectively. Rate of heat flow through copper rod is :
One mole of diatomic ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process ABC as shown in figure. The process BC is adiabatic. The temperatures at A, B and C are 400 K, 800 K and 600 K respectively. Choose the correct statement :
An open glass tube is immersed in mercury in such a way that a length of 8 cm extends above the mercury level. The open end of the tube is then closed and sealed and the tube is raised vertically up by additional 46 cm. What will be length of the air column above mercury in the tube now ?
(Atmospheric pressure = 76 cm of Hg)
A particle moves with simple harmonic motion in a straight line. In first τ s, after starting from rest it travels a distance a, and in next τ s it travels 2a, in same direction, then :
A pipe of length 85 cm is closed from one end. Find the number of possible natural oscillations of air column in the pipe whose frequencies lie below 1250 Hz. The velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s.
Assume that an electric field exists in space. Then the potential difference V_{A} – V_{O}, where VO is the potential at the origin and V_{A} the potential at x = 2 m is :
A parallel plate capacitor is made of two circular plates separated by a distance of 5 mm and with a dielectric of dielectric constant 2.2 between them. When the electric field in the dielectric is 3 × 10^{4} V/m, the charge density of the positive plate will be close to :
In a large building, there are 15 bulbs of 40 W, 5 bulbs of 100 W, 5 fans of 80 W and 1 heater of 1 kW. The voltage of the electric mains is 220 V. The minimum capacity of the main fuse of the building will be :
A conductor lies along the z-axis at −1.5 ≤ z < 1.5 m and carries a fixed current of 10.0 A in direction (see figure). For a field T, find the power required to move the conductor at constant speed to x = 2.0 m, y = 0 m in 5 × 10^{−3} s. Assume parallel motion along the x-axis.
The coercivity of a small magnet where the ferromagnet gets demagnetized is 3 × 10^{3} A m^{−1}.The current required to be passed in a solenoid of length 10 cm and number of turns 100, so that the magnet gets demagnetized when inside the solenoid, is :
In the circuit shown here, the point ‘C’ is kept connected to point ‘A’ till the current flowing through the circuit becomes constant. Afterward, suddenly, point ‘C’ is disconnected from point ‘A’ and connected to point ‘B’ at time t = 0. Ratio of the voltage across resistance and the inductor at t = L/R will be equal to:
During the propagation of electromagnetic waves in a medium :
A thin convex lens made from crown glass has focal length f When it is measured in tow different liquids having refractive indices it has the focal lengths f_{1 }and f_{2 }respectively. The correct relation between the focal lengths is :
A green light is incident from t he water to the air – water interface at the critical angle (θ). Select the correct statement.
Two beams, A and B, of p lane polarized light with mutually perpendicular planes of polarization are seen through a Polaroid. From the position when the beam A has maximum intensity (and beam B has zero intensity), a rotation of Polaroid through 30° makes the two beams appear equally bright. If the initial intensities of the two beams are I_{A} and I_{B} respectively, then equals :
The radiation corresponding to 3→2 transition of hydrogen atom falls on a metal surface to produce photoelectrons. These electrons are made to enter a magnetic field of 3 × 10^{−4 }T. If the radius of the largest circular path followed by these electrons is 10.0 mm, the work function of the metal is close to:
Hydrogen (_{1}H^{1}), Deuterium (_{1}H^{2}), singly ionised Helium (_{2}He^{4})^{+ }and doubly ionised lithium (_{3}Li^{6})^{+ + }all have one electron around the nucleus. Consider an electron transition from n = 2 to n = 1. If the wave lengths of emitted radiation are λ_{1}, λ_{2}, λ_{3} and λ_{4} respectively then approximately which one of the following is correct?
The forward biased diode connection is :
Match List-I (Electromagnetic wave type) with List-II (Its association/application) and select the correct option from the choices given below the lists :
List-1 | List-2 | ||
(a) | Infrared waves | (i) | To treat muscular strain |
(b) | Radio waves | (ii) | For broadcasting |
(c) | X-rays | (iii) | To detect fracture of bones |
(d) | Ultraviolet rays | (iv) | Absorbed by the ozone layer of the atmosphere |
A student measured the length of a rod and wrote it as 3.50 cm. Which instrument did he use to measure it?
The best things in US are :-
I had a great time in the snow in US. The winter was always exciting. Going for long trips to other states was fun.
snow
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If the scalar projection of the vector on the vector is 5, then a value of β is equal to
The Laplace transform of e^{−t} cos(2t) is
If z(x, y) = x^{2} – y^{2}, x(t) = t – t^{2} and y(t) = t^{2} + t^{−3} then at t = 1 is equal to ________
NAT Type Question
The characteristic observation in burning test of cotton fibre is
The given structure is a repeat unit of
Which of the following is(are) bast fibre(s)
P. Cotton
Q. Flax
R. Silk
S. Jute
During crystallization of polyester
Which of the following fibre(s) is(are) manufactured by melt spinning process
P. Viscose
Q. Cellulose acetate
R. Nylon-6
S. Aramid
Keeping card production same, the quality of carding will improve by setting
The tenacity of
P. Carded sliver
Q. First drawn sliver
R. Second drawn sliver
S. Combed sliver
follows the order
For a given yarn fineness, use of ring traveler of too small a mass gives
In cotton combing process, the counter-feed system gives
Probability of warp breakage during weaving increases, when
In terms of weft insertion rate, which of the following is correct?
A tuck stitch in knitting makes the fabric
A perpendicular-laid nonwoven
The cut squaring technique of sampling of fibres is NOT applicable to
The ratio of wet-strength ot dry-strength of viscose fibre is
Theoretical limit for mass irregularity (CV_{lim}) of a cotton yarn does NOT depend on
Diamond bars appear in woven fabric due to
In a three-sigma control chart, the probability that a point falls outside the control limits, when a process is under control, is
Shrinkage of cotton fabric during wetting is caused by
Vapour-phase flame retardant agents are based on compound containing
White specks observed in dyed cotton fabric are attributed to
Number of moles, accurate to one decimal place, required in 200 cm^{3} to make 0.5 mol l^{−1} sodium hydroxide solution is _____
NAT Type Question
The median, accurate to two decimal places, of a random variable X with the probability density function is _______
NAT Type Question
Using Simpson’s 1/3 rule, the value of the integral accurate to two decimal places, is _____
NAT Type Question
If a solution curve of the differential equation passes through the point (1, 0), then this curve also passes through the point
The system of linear equations has
The function f(x) = x^{3} – 3x^{2} – 9x + 10 is
Group I contains techniques of fibre manufacturing. Group II gives the physical phenomena associated with these techniques. Match the technique with the phenomenon
Group I
P. Melt spinning
Q. Wet spinning
R. Dry spinning
Group II
1. Diffusion of only solvent
2. Diffusion of both solvent and non-solvent
3. No solvent diffusion
The average molecular mass, in g/mol, of nylon-6 polymer, having average degree of polymerization of 100, is ______
(given S = 32 amu, N = 14 amu, O = 16 amu, C = 12 amu, H = 1 amu)
NAT Type Question
Group I consists of names of fibres. Group II gives characteristic structural features of these fibres. Match the fibre from Group I to its respective feature from Group II
Group I Group II
P. Cotton 1. Para- and ortho-cortex
Q. Jute 2. Primary and secondary wall
R. Wool 3. Fibroin β-sheets
S. Silk 4. Multicellular
Wool gives warmth because it has
P. A helical structure which can entrap air
Q. High heat of sorption
R. Low crystallinity
S. High extensibility
To obtain high molecular weight nylon-66, if 11.6 g of hexamethylene diamine (molecular weight 116 g/mol) is used, then the required amount of adipic acid (molecular weight 146 weight 146 g/mol), in gram, accurate to one decimal place, is _______
NAT Type Question
If the distance between two adjacent fibres of circular cross-section in a hexagonally packed yarn is equal to the radius of the fibre, then the packing density of yarn, accurate to three decimal places, is _______
NAT Type Question
A 30 tex open-end rotor yarn having 650 twist per meter is produced using 33 mm rotor diameter and 1,20,000 rotor rpm. The rotational speed of the peel-off point is ______× 10^{3} rpm
NAT Type Question
A bobbin lead roving frame is running at 25 m/min delivery speed and 1250 rpm spindle speed. The rotational speed of the bobbin, at the instant of 0.10 m bobbin diameter, accurate to two decimal places, is _____ rpm
NAT Type Question
A T-shirt is produced from cotton fibre of 1520 kg m^{−3} density, 1.4 dtex fineness and 30 mm length. The total number of fibres in the T-shirt of 0.15 kg is ______× 10^{6}
NAT Type Question
Pilling resistance of
A needle loom, having a needle board with 2000 needles/m, is operating at a stroke frequency of 2000 strokes/min and producing a needle-punched nonwoven fabric at 5m/min. The punch density, in number of punches per cm^{2} is _______
NAT Type Question
Compared to conventional sizing, the wet sizing process reduces
In a fabric, warp count is 25 tex, weft count is 32 tex, ends per cm is 25, picks per cm is 15, warp crimp is 6% and weft crimp is 8%. The areal density of the fabric, in g/m^{2} accurate to two decimal places, is ______
NAT Type Question
Let a cheese of 160 mm traverse length be wound on a rotary traverse machine having a drum of 75 mm diameter and 2.5 crossings. If the drum rotates at 3250 rpm, then the coil angle, in degrees, accurate to one decimal place, is _______
NAT Type Question
Group I consists of weave designs. Group II lists end-use/property. Match the weave design from Group I with the corresponding end-use/property from Group II
Group I Group II
P. Leno 1. Furnishing
Q. Honeycomb 2. Broken and irregular surface
R. Jacquard 3. Mosquito net
S. Crepe 4. Towel
At 65% relative humidity and 20℃ temperature, the moisture regain of the fibres
(P) Wool (Q) Nylon 6 (R) Cotton (S) Polyester
follows the order
While measuring tensile properties using Stelometer at 3.2 mm gauge length, a cotton fibre bundle of 15 mm length and 4.5 mg weight registers a breaking load of 6 kg. The bundle tenacity (g/tex) is _____
NAT Type Question
The tenacity of a two-fold yarn is 1.1 times the tenacity of its component single yarn. The breaking load of the two-fold yarn is X times the breaking load of its single component yarn. Neglecting length contraction due to twist, the value of X, accurate to one decimal place, is ______
NAT Type Question
The compressive pressure applied onto a fabric is inversely proportional to the cube of thickness of the fabric. If the thickness is halved during compression, then the pressure increase by _______ times.
NAT Type Question
The coefficient of correlation between packing density and porosity of a set of yarns is _______
NAT Type Question
Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]
Assertion : Jet dyeing machines yield level dyeing in short dyeing time
Reason : Jet dyeing machines use pressure jets to force dye into the fibre
Group I lists chemical processes. Group II lists chemicals used in these processes. Match the process with the corresponding chemical
Group I Group II
P. Carbonising 1. Na_{2}CO_{3}
Q. Scouring 2. H_{2}SO_{4}
R. Bleaching 3. NaOH
S. Mercerising 4. H_{2}O_{2}
Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following statements
[p] The contact angle θ is indicated of the wetability of a textile surface by a liquid
[q] Values of θ > 90° indicate poor wetting surfaces
The add-on of a chemical finish required on a fabric is 3% on-weight-of-fabric (owf). If the wet pick up is 80%, then the concentration of finish required in the padding bath, in % (wt/wt), accurate to two decimal places, is ______
NAT Type Question
Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]
Assertion : Burnt out effect on polyester/cotton blend fabric can be obtained by printing
Reason : Printing paste contains a reagent that releases an acid during steaming
He was one of my best __________ and I felt his loss _________.
As the two speakers became increasingly agitated, the debate became __________.
A right – angled cone (with base radius 5cm and height 12cm), as shown in the figure below, is rolled on the ground keeping the point P fixed until the point Q (at the base of the cone, as shown) touches the ground again.
By what angle (in radians) about P does the cone travel?
In a company with 100 employees, 45 earn Rs. 20,000 per month, 25 earn Rs. 30,000, 20 earn Rs. 40,000 8 earn Rs. 60,000, and 2 earn Rs. 150,000. The median of the salaries is
P,Q, and R talk about S’s car collection. P states that S has at least 3 cars. Q believes that S has less than 3 cars. R indicates that to his knowledge, S has at least one Car. Only one of P, Q and R is right the number cars owned by S is.
“Here, throughout the early 1820s, Stuart continued to fight his losing battle to allow his sepoys to wear their caste-marks and their own choice of facial hair on parade, being again reprimanded by the commander-in-chief. His retort that ‘A stronger instance than this of European prejudice with relation to this country has never come under my observations’ had no effect on his superiors.”
According to this paragraph, which of the statements below is most accurate?
What is the sum of the missing digits in the subtraction problem below?
Let S_{1} be the plane figure consisting of the points (x,y) given by the inequalities |x – 1| ≤ 2 and |y + 2| ≤ 3. Let S_{2} be the plane figure given by the inequalities x – y ≥ −2, y ≥ 1, and x ≤ 3 Let S be the union of S_{1} and S_{2}. The area of S is
Two very famous sportsmen Mark and Steve happened to be brothers, and played for country K. Mark teased James, an opponent from country E, “There is no way you are good enough to play for your country.’’ James replied, “Maybe not, but at least I am the best player in my own family.”
Which one of the following can be inferred from this conversation?
minimum bacterial population density of 0.8(in suitable units) is needed to form curd. In the graph below, the population density of lactobacillus in 1 litre of milk is plotted as a function of time, at two different temperatures, 25°C and 37°C.
Consider the following statements based on the data shown above:
(i) The growth in bacterial population stops earlier at 37°C as compared to 25°C
(ii) The time taken for curd formation at 25°C is twice the time taken at 37°C
Which one of the following options is correct?
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Chemistry (XL-P)
CO reacts readily with
Molecules that are NOT isoelectronic to ion are
The extensive quantity among the following is
The compound that gives characteristic foul smell upon heating with potassium hydroxide and chloroform is
The correct order of stability in water is
The pair o f molecules having non-linear structures is
The decreasing order of bond lengths for O_{2}, B_{2}, N_{2} and C_{2} is
The octahedral metal oxide with the highest CFSE value is
Assuming independent non-interacting electrons, the first ionization energy of Helium atom is
For a reaction A + B → products, the following data was obtained.
A_{0} and B_{0} are initial concentrations of A and B, respectively. The overall order of the reaction is
The EMF for the following cell at 298.15 K is
Ag(s) | Ag^{+} (aq., 0.01 M)|| Ag^{+}(aq., 1.0 M)|Ag(s)
(Standard reduction potential for Ag^{+} + e^{−} → Ag is −0.80 V)
One gram of a protein is dissolved in one liter of water. The resulting solution exerts an osmotic pressure of 1.4 Torr at 298 K. Assuming that the protein does not ionize in solution, the molecular weight of the protein is ______ g mol^{−1}. (R = 0.082 L atm mol^{−1} K^{−1})
NAT Type Question
The type of nucelophilic substitution and the possible products for each of the reactions P and Q are
If mono-chlorination occurs at every carbon in the following reaction, the number of isomers (stereo isomers + constitutional isomers) that one can have is
The major product in the following reaction is
Biochemistry (XL-Q)
The molecular weights of a protein as determined by native PAGE is 400 kDa. This protein when run on a non-reducing SDS-PAGE gave band of 200 kDa and on a reducing SDS-PAGE, gave a band of 100 kDa. The protein is
Which one of the following techniques CANNOT be used to determine the sequence of a novel protein?
Which type of polyacrylamide gel can be used for analyzing the four different proteins listed below?
Protein P: 60 kDa, pI 4
Protein Q: 45 kDa, pI 8
Protein R: 60 kDa, pI 6
Protein S: 45 kDa, pI 7.5
The number of fragments generated when the peptide ‘ANDCQEGKFMLKPDTWRYVSFMRPA’ is subjected to complete digestion with trypsin are ….
NAT Type Question
Puromycin is a structural analog of
Which one of the enzymes is responsible for arsenic toxicity?
Which one is TRUE for Calvin cycle?
Administration of primaquine causes severe hemolytic anemia because it
Which one of the following will NOT from lipid bilayer?
Which one of the following features is NOT appropriate for Fab fragment of IgG?
The duration of DNA synthesis (S phase) in plant cells is 11 h and the DNA is replicated at rate of 100 bp/s fork. A plant species has about 3.0 × 10^{10} bp DNA/genome. The number of bidirectional forks per genome required for replication will be …………..
NAT Type Question
In a PCR reaction, with one double stranded DNA of 600 bp, nano gram of DNA produced after 40 cycles of amplification will be ………
NAT Type Question
A solution containing GTP has molar extinction coefficient of 1.55 × 10^{4} mol^{−1} dm^{3} cm^{−1} at a given wavelength. The concentration of GTP solution is 1.290 × 10^{−5} mol dm^{−3}. The absorbance of GTP solution in 1 cm cuvette at the same wavelength will be ….
NAT Type Question
Which one of the following is NOT TRUE for class I MHC protein?
In an enzyme catalyzed reaction, the initial reaction velocity is only one fourth of its maximum velocity. If the substrate concentration is 3.0 × 10^{−3} mM, the value of K_{m} in micro molar (μM) will be ….
NAT Type Question
Match the following enzymes in column I with their cofactors in column II
Column I
(P) Pyruvate decarboxylase
(Q) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase
(R) Pyruvate carboxylase
(S) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
Column II
Biocytin
ii, NADP^{+}
iii. NAD^{+}
iv. Thiamine pyrophosphate
Match the molecule in column I with its function in column II
Column I
(P) Cholera toxin
(Q) Pertussis toxin
(R) IP3
(S) Caffeine
Column II
(i) modifies G_{α}_{i}
(ii) inhibits c-AMP phosphodiesterase
(iii) modifies G_{α}_{S}
(iv) increases interacellular Ca^{2+} level
In an in vitro dehydrogenatin reaction of succinate catalyzed by succinate dehydrogenase, malonate is added. Which one of the following curves represents the effect of malonate on the catalysis of succinate dehydrogenase?
Cardiotonic steroids have ability to strengthen heart muscle contraction due to the fact that these steroids
A newly isolated circular plasmid gave two bands of 3.2 and 3 kb on digestion with EcoRI and two bands of 5.0 kb and 1.2 kb on digestion with BamHI. Double digestion with EcoRI and BamHI, yielded four bands of 2.6 kb, 2.4 kb, 0.8 kb and 0.4 kb. Digestion with SalI led to disruption of ampicillin resistance gene cassette. The correct restriction map is
Botany (XL-R)
As per the Angiosperm Phylogeny Group (APG II, 2003) classification, which of the following plant families comprises of only single genus with single species?
A cavity, lysigenous in origin and possessing volatile oil is found in the pericarp of one of the following plants. Identify the CORRECT answer.
Among the following, which genetic material is naturally inherited through maternal inheritance in higher plants?
A typical floral meristem differs from shoot apical meristem on the basis of
Which of the following plant hormones is a carotenoid-cleavage product?
Two of the vir operons of Ti plasmid in Agrobacterium tumefaciens are constitutively expressed. Identify the CORRECT pair.
Which of the following fungi is an example of obligate biotrophic plant pathogen?
The phenomenon where an organism lives at the expense of another organism by harming it but not killing, is called
Which of the following is TRUE for K-strategist species?
Identify the INCORRECT statement with relation to plant secondary metabolites.
Choose the CORRECT set of matches between group I and group II in relation to nitrogen fixation and assimilation
Group I Group II
(P) Nitrobacter 1. NO_{3}^{−} → NO_{2}^{−}
(Q) Nitrite reductase 2. N_{2} → 2NH_{3}
(R) Nitrogenase 3. NO_{2}^{−} → NH_{4}^{+}
(S) Nitrate reductase 4. NO_{2}^{−} → NO_{3}^{−}
Two plant cells M and N are lying side by side making direct contact. “M” has osmotic potential (Ψs) of -10 bar and pressure potential (Ψp) of 4 bar. On the other hand, “N” has osmotic potential (Ψs) of -12 bar and pressure potential (Ψp) of 5 bar.
Based on these data, what would be the direction of movement of water between M and N?
Two independent non-segregating recessive mutants (m1 and m2) display similar defects in petal formation. When they were crossed with each other (m1 x m2), all the F1 plants developed normal petals. In view of this observation, which of the following conclusions is CORRECT?
In a hypothetical trihybrid cross of three loci (viz. A, B, C), all were inherited in a complete dominant manner over their recessive alleles a, b, c, respectively. When a test cross between F1 and parent ‘aabbcc’ was performed, following genotypes of eight phenotypically distinct classes were observed with respective numbers
The genetic distance (up to one decimal) between A and C loci will be _____cM.
NAT Type Question
In a typical sexually reproducing angiospermic plant, if an endosperm cell contains 4.8 × 10^{8} nucleotide pairs of DNA, then microsporocyte of this plants will have ________× 10^{8} nucleotide pairs of DNA.
NAT Type Question
Identify the CORRECT matching between group I and group II in relation to ecology
Group I
(P) The physical environment of an organism
(Q) The totality of the needs of a population for survival and its resource utilization
(R) The position of a species in a food chain
(S) Basic functional unit comprising living community and its physical environment
Group II
1. Trophic level
2. Habitat
3. Ecosystem
4. Niche
5. Ecological pyramid
Choose the CORRECT set of matches between group I and group II in relation to plant genetic transformation methods.
Group I Group II
(P) Helium 1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(Q) Acetosyringone 2. Microinjection
(R) Polyethylene glycol 3. Particle bombardment
(S) Agarose embedding 4. Protoplast
Match the pathogen, disease caused and the affected plant in the CORRECT combination.
Pathogen
(P) Blumeria graminis
(Q) Magnaparthe grisea
(R) Venturia inaequalis
(S) Cercospora personata
Disease
i. Blast disease
ii. Powdery mildew
iii. Tikka disease
iv. Scab disease
Plant
1. Groundnut
2. Apple
3. Barley
4. Rice
Choose the plant part, its use and the source species in CORRECT combination.
Plant Part
P. Bark
Q. Leaf
R. Capsule
S. Stigma
Use
i. Insecticide
ii. Food colorant
iii. Flavoring agent
iv. Analgesic
Species
1. Crocus sativus
2. Papaver somniferum
3. Azadirachta indica
4. Cinnamomum zeylanicum
Which two of the following reactions are INCORRECT in relation to C_{2} oxidative photosynthetic carbon cycle in land plants?
P. 2(Ribulose-1, 5-biphosphate) + 2(CO_{2}) → 2(phosphoglycolate) + 2(3-phosphoglycerate) + 4H^{+}
Q. Serine + α-ketoglutarate → hydroxypyruvate + glutamine
R. 2(Phosphoglycolate) + 2(H_{2}O) → 2(glycolate) + 2Pi
S. Hydroxypyruvate + NADH + H^{+} → glycerate + NAD^{+}
Microbiology (XL-S)
Which one of the following is the end product of dissimilatory sulfate reduction by sulfate reducing bacteria?
Which one of the following is the terminal electron acceptor in the given metabolic reaction catalyzed by methanogens?
4H_{2} + CO_{2} → CH_{4} + 2H_{2}O
Microbes that have their optimal growth rate near 15℃ but can still grow at 0℃ to 20℃ are known as
Which one of the following is NOT a contribution by Robert Koch?
Unicellular eukaryotic organisms belong to which one of the following kingdoms of classification?
Which one of the following is a contagious disease?
The inner mitochondrial membrane comprises of a series of folds known as
Which one of the following antibiotics is NOT produced by Streptomyces sp.?
Which one of the following statements is TRUE about MacConkey (MAC) agar medium?
As an antiseptic, alcohol is effective against
An antigen X was injected into a rabbit for the first time at time P. Then the rabbit was given a booster dose of X at time Q. Which one of the following figures accurately depicts the adaptive immune response by the rabbit against X?
A bactericidal agent X is added after 3 hours of growth of a bacterial culture. Following the addition of X, the bacterial growth was measured using the standard plate count method till 24 hours. Which one of the following figures is the most accurate representation of the action of X?
Match the diseases given in Group I with their causative agents from Group II.
Group I Group II
(P) Plague (I) Coxiella burnetii
(Q) Rabies (II) Plasmodium spp.
(R) Q fever (III) Yersinia pestis
(S) Malaria (IV) Lyssavirus
Match the enzymes given in Group I with the events from Group II.
Group I
(P) UvrABC endonulcease
(Q) Reverse transcriptase
(R) AP endonuclease
(S) ATP sulfurylase
Group II
(I) Retrovirus replication
(II) Base excision repair
(III) Nucleotide excision repair
(IV) Pyrosequencing
Match the terms given in Group I with the descriptions from Group II.
Group I
(P) Photoautotrophs
(Q)Chemoautotrophs
(R) Photoheterotrophs
(S) Chemoheterotrophs
Group II
(I) Use inorganic chemical reactions for energy production
(II) Use organic compounds for energy production
(III) Use sunlight as energy source and carbon dioxide as carbon source
(IV) Use sunlight as energy source and organic compounds as carbon source
One-ml sample of a bacterial culture was serially diluted to 10^{5} times, and 46 colonies were obtained after plating this diluted sample on an agar medium. The number of cells present per ml in the undiluted original sample were_______
NAT Type Question
The transformation efficiency of competent cells prepared in a laboratory is 10^{4} CFU/μg of plasmid DNA. If 0.01 μg of this plasmid is used to transform these competent cells, the number of transformed bacteria in CFU after plating will be ________
NAT Type Question
Assume that the average DNA content of a single microbial cell is 4 femtogram. A soil sample analyzed for its microbial community DNA is found to contain 0.32μg DNA per gram of the soil. The number of microbial cells per milligram of the soil are _______
NAT Type Question
Assume that a bacterial culture has mean generation time of 2 hours. If the number of bacteria present after 24 hours of culture are 4.1 × 10^{7}, the initial number of bacteria present were ________
NAT Type Question
The minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) of an antibiotic X against Clostribdium tetani, Staphylococcus sp., Shigella sp., and Streptococcus sp. is 25, 15, 2 and 1 μg/ml, respectively. Assuming that the bioavailable concentration of X in an animal model is 20 μg/ml, which one of these bacteria may develop resistance against X in the animal model?
Zoology (XL-T)
The characteristic feature of deuterostomes is depicted by
One of the most remarkable features of evolution is the formation of amnion and allantoin. This appeared for the “first time” in evolutionary time scale in
A woman with blood group A gave birth to a baby with blood group AB. The blood group of the father would be
The enzyme amylase can break alpha glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers. Hence amylase can digest which one of the following carbohydrates?
The metabolic pathway which is common to both fermentation and cellular respiration is
A female “Spotted sand piper” courts males repeatedly. This behavior can be explained by the term
Malaria is caused by Plasmodium species, which is a parasite having a complex life cycle. The fusion between male and female gametocytes of Plasmodium happens inside
Aromatase inhibitors are often prescribed for post-menopausal women to treat estrogen receptor positive breast cancer patients, because these class of drugs
The covalent modification performed by kinases which regulate proteins in signaling pathways is
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
A particular species is found to have 2n = 16 chromosomes. The n umber of linkage groups in this species will be ______
NAT Type Question
In the Meselson and Stahl experiment. E. coli was grown in a medium containing ^{15}NH_{4}Cl. After 24 hours. E. coli were transferred to medium containing ^{14}NH_{4}Cl. After the fourth generation in medium containing ^{14}NH_{4}Cl, the ratio between hybrids (^{15}N/^{14}N) and light (^{14}/^{14}N)labeled DNA will be 1 : n, where the value of n is ______
NAT Type Question
The population data present in an island is as follows
Genotype Number
AA 300
Aa 500
aa 200
Total 1000
The allele frequency of A(upto two decimals) will be ______
NAT Type Question
A cell in G1 phase has 16 chromosomes. The total number of chromatids that would be found per cell during Metaphase II of meiosis are _____
NAT Type Question
Upon activation of phospholipase C by ligand binding to G-protein coupled receptor, the Ca^{+2} concentration in cytosol will
Match the following molecules in Group I with their function in Group II
Group I Group II
P. Transferrin (i) Uptake of glucose
Q. Insulin (ii) Binds iron
R. α-macroglobulin (iii) Substratum for cell attachment
S. Fibronectin (iv) Proteinase inhibitor
(v) Binds to oxygen in RBC
If a heavy chain of an antibody molecule weighs 65,000 Daltons (Da) and a light chain weighs 25,000 Da, the approximate calculated weight of an IgM antibody in Da will be
MATCH the signaling pathways in Group I with their functions in Group II, during the process of development
Group I
Hedgehog signaling
Hox proteins
Wnt signaling
Notch signaling
Group II
(i) Involved in signaling at 4-cell embryo stage in C. elegans through glp 1 expression
(ii) Involves frizzled receptor on target cell membrane and establish polarity in insects
(iii) Plays critical role in facial morphogenesis in vertebrates and its mutation causes cyclopia
(iv) Required for T-bx transcription factor expression for vertebrate limb development
In a population which is Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium the frequency of the recessive genotype of a certain trait is 0.09. The percentage of individuals with heterozygous genotype is ______%
NAT Type Question
An enzyme preparation has activity of 2 Units per 20 μl, and protein concentration 0.4 mg/ml. The specific activity (Units/mg) of this enzyme will be_____
NAT Type Question
Food Technology (XL-U)
Indicate the correct group that contains a monosaccharide, a disaccharide and a trisaccharide.
In which of the following products, ‘must’ is used as the substrate for fermentation?
Identify the foodborne illness which is not caused by bacteria.
Nutrient composition of wheat flour changes with extent of extraction from whole wheat grain. Which of the following statements is true if the extraction rate increased from 50% to 90%?
You have two samples of milk, one (X) with 3.8% fat and another (Y) with 0.5% fat. In order to produce a milk with 3.5% fat, 100 ml of Y should be mixed with ______ml of X.
NAT Type Question
Match the items in column I with the items in column II in relation to food safety and standards.
Column I Column II
P. HACCP 1. International food standards
Q. FSSAI 2. Quality control protocol
R. CIP 3. Food plant sanitation and hygiene protocol
S. CODEX 4. Indian food standards
A 50% sucrose solution at 20℃ is flowing at a rate of 3.5 m^{3}/h through a pipe with an inside diameter of 0.0475 m and length of 12 m. The viscosity and the density of the solution are 15.43 cp and 1232 kg/m^{3}, respectively. The Reynolds number of the flow is ______.
NAT Type Question
In a pineapple juice, fibre particles having mean diameter of 160 μm and density of 1075 kg/m^{3} are settling by gravity. If the density and viscosity of the juice are 1015 kg/m^{3} and 0.98 cp, respectively, terminal velocity of the fibre particles is _____mm/s.
NAT Type Question
Power consumption in liquid mixing is proportional to ______.
A dye-reduction test for estimation of viable microorganisms, the most commonly used dyes are methylene blue, triphenyltetrazolium-chloride and _________
Match the following items of group I with the items of group II in relatin to the quality of fat.
Group I
P. Saponification number
Q. Iodine number
R. Reichert Meissl number
S. Acetyl value
Group II
1. Unsaturation of fatty acid
2. Volatile water soluble fatty acid
3. Hydroxy fatty acid
4. Molecular weight of fatty acid
Match the following metabolic product (Column I) that indicates the quality of food (Column II)
Column I Column II
P. Ethanol 1. Canned vegetable
Q. Lactic acid 2. Fish
R. Trimehylamine 3. Butter
S. Volatile fatty acid 4. Apple juice
Correlate the vitamins in column I with their role in promoting reaction/process in column II.
Column I Column II
P. Riboflavin 1. Visual cycle
Q. Vitamin D 2. Acyl group transfer
R. Pantothenic acid 3. Regulation of Ca^{2+} metabolism
S. Vitamin A 4. Oxidation-reduction reaction
A pure strain with generation time of 60 min is used in a fermentation process. Following inoculation (0 h), the stain takes 2 h for adaptation, 10 h to achieve maximum growth and 12 h to arrive at the point where the death rate is higher than the growth rate. If the inoculation load is 100 cells, the total populatin at the end of 10 h will be ______.
NAT Type Question
Refer to the shear stress – shear rate plot shown in the figure below. Match the lines (Column I) with appropriate rheological behavior (Column II)
Column I Column II
P. Line 1 1. Dilatant
Q. Line 2 2. Newtonian
R. Line 3 3. Pseudoplastic
S. Line 4 4. Bingham plastic
Water flowing at a rate of 1 kg/mi is heated from 12 to 80℃ with flue gas supplied at a rate of 3 kg/min. The temperature and specific heat of the flue gas are 180℃ and 1.05 kJ/kg.K, respectively. If specific heat of water is 4.2 kJ/kg.K and the flow is parallel, then the logarithmic mean temperature difference will be _______℃.
NAT Type Question
The Lineweaver-Burk plot of an enzymatic reaction shows V_{max} of 160 μmol/l.min and k_{m} of 60 μmol/l. For a substrate concentration of 40 μmol/l the velocity of the reaction is estimated to be ______μmol/l.min.
NAT Type Question
A suspension containing 2 × 10^{4} spores of organism A having a D_{121.1}_{℃} value of 1.5 min and 8 × 10^{5} spores of organism B having a D_{121.1}_{℃} value of 0.8 min is heated at a constant temperature of 121.1℃. The heating time needed to obtain a probability of spoilage ‘1 in 1000’ is _____min.
NAT Type Question
In a evaporation process, a compressor picks up 0.05 m^{3} air in each revolution and compresses 500 kg of air per minute. If the specific volume of air is 0.9 m^{3}/kg, then the compressor speed is _____rpm.
NAT Type Question
For a soybean oil extraction system, solvent: soy ratio is maintained at 0.5:1 (w/w). Original seed contains 18% oil (w/w). If the meal (soy solid) after final desolventization has 0.01 kg oil per kg oil free meal, then the effectiveness of the solvent (kg oil/kg solvent) in the extraction process is ______
NAT Type Question
General Aptitude
The event would have been successful if you ______ able to come.
There was no doubt that their work was thorough.
Which of the words below is closest in meaning to the underlined word above?
Four cards lie on a table. Each card has a number printed on one side and a colour on the other. The faces visible on the cards are 2, 3, red, and blue.
Proposition: If a card has an even value on one side, then its opposite face is red.
The cards which MUST be turned over to verify the above proposition are
What is the value of x when
Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability that the product of the numbers appearing on the top faces of the dice is a perfect square is
Bhaichung was observing the pattern of people entering and leaving a car service centre. There was a single window where customers were being served. He saw that people inevitably came out of the centre in the order that they went in. However, the time they spent inside seemed to vary a lot: some people came out in a matter of minutes while for others it took much longer.
From this, what can one conclude?
A map shows the elevations of Darjeeling, Gangtok, Kalimpong, pelling, and Siliguri, Kalimpong is at a lower elevation than Gangtok. Pelling is at a lower elevation than Gangtok. Pelling is at a higher elevation that siliguri. Darjeeling is at a higher elevation than Gangtok.
Which of the following statements can be inferred from the paragraph above?
i. Pelling is at a higher elevation than Kalimpong
ii. Kalimpong is at a lower elevation than Darjeeling
iii. Kalimpong is at a higher elevation than siliguri
iv. Siliguri is at a lower elevation than Gangtok
P,Q,R,S,T and U are seated around a circular table. R is seated two places to the right of Q.P is seated three places to the left of R. S is seated opposite U. If P and U now switch seats.
Which of the following must necessarily be true?
Budhan covers a distance of f19 km in 2 hours by cycling one fourth of the time and walking the rest. The next day he cycles (at the same speed as before) for half the time and walks the rest (at the same speed as before) and covers 26 km in 2 hours. The speed in km/h at which Budhan walks is
The points in the graph below represent the halts of a lift for duration of 1 minute, over a period of 1 hour.
Which of the following statements are correct?
i. The elevator never moves directly from any non-ground floor to another non-ground floor over the one hour period
ii. The elevator stays on the fourth floor for the longest duration over the one hour period
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Engineering Mathematics (XE-A) (Compulsory)
If
for some α ≥ 1, then the value of α is ______.
NAT Type Question
Three fair dice are rolled simultaneously. The probability of getting a sum of 5 is
Suppose α, β, γ and δ are constants such that
p(x) = δ + γ(x + 1) + βx(x + 1) + αx(x + 1) (x – 1)
is the interpolating polynomial for the data (−1, −3), (0, 1), (1, −1), and (2, −3). Then the value of γ – β is _______.
NAT Type Question
Consider the ordinary differential equation
yʹʹ + αyʹ + βy = 0,
where α and β are constants. If y(x) = xe^{x} is a solution of the above equation, then the value of β – α is ________.
NAT Type Question
Consider the system of linear equations
2x + x_{3} = 0
−2x_{1} – x_{3} = 0
−x_{1} + x_{2} = 1.
The above system has
Let C be a simple smooth closed curve enclosing the region R in the xy-plane. Let C be oriented counterclockwise. If the value of the integral is 16, then the area of R is ________.
NAT Type Question
Consider the ordinary differential equation
x^{2}yʹʹ + xyʹ – y = x, x > 0.
In terms of arbitrary constants c_{1} and c_{2}, the general solution of the above equation is
Let f : ℝ → ℝ and g : ℝ → ℝ be defined by and where ℝ denotes the set of real numbers. Then, at x = 0,
If u(x, t) = g(t) sin x is the solution of the wave equation u_{tt} = u_{xx}, t > 0, 0 < x < π, with the initial conditions u(x, 0) = 2 sin x, u_{t}(x, 0) = 0, 0 ≤ x ≤ π, and the boundary conditions u(0, t), = u(π, t) = 0, t ≥ 0, then the value of g(π/3) is _______.
NAT Type Question
Let where t is a real variable and i = √−1. The value of I is ______.
NAT Type Question
Let a_{k} = 2^{−k}k^{4} sin k and for k = 1, 2, …. Then